Nursing Elites

1. When evaluating a kinetic family drawing, which of the following actions is most effective?

• A. asking the child to draw their family doing something
• B. offering specific suggestions of what to include in the drawing
• C. discouraging the child from talking about the drawing
• D. noting the omission of any family members

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When evaluating a kinetic family drawing, noting the omission of any family members is an effective action. It is crucial to observe and analyze all aspects of the drawing, including what is missing. This can provide valuable insights into the child's perception and relationships within the family. Asking the child to draw their family doing something (Choice A) is more related to initial instruction rather than evaluation. Offering specific suggestions (Choice B) can influence the child's drawing and should be avoided to maintain the authenticity of the representation. Discouraging the child from talking about the drawing (Choice C) is counterproductive as verbal expression can provide additional context and understanding.

2. A client is taught about healthy dietary measures and the MyPlate food plan. How many of his grains should be whole grains according to the MyPlate food plan?

• A. One-quarter
• B. One-third
• C. One-half
• D. Two-thirds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'One-half.' According to the MyPlate food plan, at least half of the grains consumed daily should be whole grains. This ensures a well-balanced and healthy diet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the dietary recommendation provided by the MyPlate food plan. One-quarter, one-third, and two-thirds do not represent the appropriate proportion of whole grains as advised by the plan, which emphasizes the importance of including a significant portion of whole grains in one's diet.

3. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?

• A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
• B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
• C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
• D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.

4. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

5. A woman in labor whose cervix is not completely dilated is pushing strenuously during contractions. Which method of breathing should the nurse encourage the woman to perform to help her overcome the urge to push?

• A. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver
• B. Blowing repeatedly in short puffs
• C. Cleansing breaths
• D. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end, respectively, of each contraction

Correct answer: B

Rationale: If a woman pushes strenuously before the cervix is completely dilated, she risks injury to the cervix and the fetal head. Blowing prevents closure of the glottis and breath-holding, helping overcome the urge to push strenuously. The woman would be encouraged to blow repeatedly, using short puffs, when the urge to push is strong. This breathing technique allows for controlled exhalation and helps prevent unnecessary pushing. Cleansing breaths (deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction) are encouraged during the first stage of labor to provide oxygenation and reduce myometrial hypoxia and to promote relaxation. Holding her breath and using the Valsalva maneuver (choice A) is not recommended as it can increase intra-abdominal pressure and decrease venous return, potentially compromising fetal oxygenation. Deep inspiration and expiration at the beginning and end of each contraction (choice D) are more suitable for relaxation and oxygenation purposes rather than managing the urge to push.

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