NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep
1. A nurse is preparing to assist the healthcare provider in performing an internal gynecological examination of a client. In which position does the nurse place the client for this examination?
- A. Prone
- B. Left side-lying
- C. Sims
- D. Lithotomy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An internal gynecological examination is performed with the client in the lithotomy position. In this position, the client is supine, with the feet in stirrups, the knees apart, and the buttocks at the end of the examining table. The client is draped so that only the vulva is exposed. The lithotomy position provides optimal access for the healthcare provider to perform the examination effectively. The prone position refers to lying on the stomach, which is not suitable for a gynecological exam. The Sims position is a left side-lying position primarily used for administering enemas, not for gynecological examinations.
2. When educating an obese client about nutritional needs and weight loss, which of the following should not be included?
- A. knowledge of food and food products
- B. development of a positive mental attitude
- C. adequate exercise
- D. starting a fast weight-loss diet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating an obese client about nutritional needs and weight loss, it is important to cover factors such as knowledge of food and food products, the development of a positive mental attitude, and the importance of adequate exercise. These aspects contribute to a holistic approach to weight management. However, recommending the client to start a fast weight-loss diet should not be included. Fast weight-loss diets can be harmful, leading to health risks, nutrient deficiencies, and unsustainable outcomes. It is crucial to advocate for gradual, sustainable weight loss strategies to ensure long-term success and overall well-being. Therefore, starting a fast weight-loss diet is the least appropriate option among the choices provided.
3. A client has just returned from surgery where a femoral-popliteal bypass was performed. The nurse has assessed the client and is unable to feel a pulse at either the dorsalis pedis or the posterior tibial sites of the left foot. The foot feels warm, and the color is pink. What action should the nurse perform next to prevent ischemia?
- A. Notify the physician immediately
- B. Obtain a Doppler device to check for pulses, and notify the physician if they are still absent
- C. Wait 30 minutes and recheck the pulses
- D. Document the finding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should immediately obtain a Doppler device and recheck the pulses. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses can be difficult to assess and might need to be verified with a Doppler device. Since the client just had surgery with a risk of arterial insufficiency, close monitoring is crucial. If pulses are not palpable, it indicates an emergent situation requiring immediate physician notification. Waiting 30 minutes before reassessment could lead to foot ischemia. While documenting findings is essential, it should follow pulse confirmation or necessary interventions to ensure the client's foot viability.
4. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?
- A. refusal to walk
- B. not pulling to a standing position
- C. negative Trendelenburg sign
- D. negative Ortolani sign
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.
5. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?
- A. vitiligo
- B. erythema
- C. cyanosis
- D. chloasma
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.
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