NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX Questions
1. When determining a fetal heart rate (FHR) and noting accelerations from the baseline rate when the fetus is moving, a nurse interprets this finding as:
- A. A reassuring sign
- B. An indication of the need to contact the physician
- C. An indication of fetal distress
- D. A nonreassuring sign
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse notes accelerations from the baseline rate of the fetal heart rate, particularly when they occur with fetal movement, it is considered a reassuring sign. This indicates a healthy response to fetal activity. Reassuring signs in FHR monitoring include an average rate between 120 and 160 beats/min at term, a regular rhythm with slight fluctuations, accelerations from the baseline rate (often associated with fetal movement), and the absence of decreases from the baseline rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because accelerations in FHR with fetal movement are not indicative of the need to contact the physician, fetal distress, or a nonreassuring sign. These signs would typically be associated with other abnormal FHR patterns that would warrant further assessment and intervention.
2. At what age are yearly mammograms recommended to start?
- A. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 25.
- B. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 40.
- C. Yearly mammograms are not necessary unless there is a family history of breast cancer.
- D. Yearly mammograms are recommended starting at age 20 and continuing until menopause begins.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The American Cancer Society recommends yearly mammograms starting at age 40 and continuing for as long as a woman is in good health. Clinical breast examination should be done about every 3 years for women in their 20s and 30s and every year for women age 40 and older. Women should know how their breasts normally look and feel and report any breast change promptly to the healthcare provider. Breast self-examination should be done monthly starting when a woman is in her 20s. Choice A is incorrect as mammograms are not recommended to start at age 25. Choice C is incorrect as yearly mammograms are still recommended even without a family history of breast cancer. Choice D is incorrect as the recommended age for starting yearly mammograms is 40, not 20.
3. What is the therapeutic range for carbamazepine (Tegretol)?
- A. 7-12 mcg/mL
- B. 4-10 mcg/mL
- C. 10-14 mcg/mL
- D. 1-5 mcg/mL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The therapeutic range for carbamazepine (Tegretol) is 4-10 mcg/mL. This range is established based on the optimal balance between effectiveness and safety. Choices A, C, and D are outside the therapeutic range for carbamazepine, which could lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes or increased risk of toxicity. Choice B (4-10 mcg/mL) is the correct range recommended for therapeutic efficacy while minimizing adverse effects.
4. A sexually active married couple, discussing birth control methods with the nurse, expresses the need for a method that is convenient. Because the couple has told the nurse that family-planning goals have been met, which method of birth control does the nurse suggest?
- A. Diaphragm
- B. Sterilization
- C. Male condom
- D. Spermicide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, since the couple has indicated that their family-planning goals have been met, a permanent method of contraception like sterilization would be most suitable. Sterilization offers long-term effectiveness and convenience once the decision to stop having children is made. Options like the diaphragm, male condom, or spermicide are more suitable for temporary contraception or when the family-planning goals have not yet been achieved. Therefore, the correct answer is sterilization, as it aligns with the couple's need for a convenient and permanent birth control method.
5. The client has an order for an IV piggyback of Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W to run over 30 minutes. What is the appropriate drip rate?
- A. 100 mL/hr
- B. 150 mL/hr
- C. 200 mL/hr
- D. 50 mL/hr
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the drip rate, you need to convert the time from minutes to hours. The formula is (Volume to be infused / Time for infusion in minutes) x (60 minutes / 1 hour). Substituting the values, (50 mL / 30 min) x (60 min / 1 hr) = 100 mL/hr. Therefore, the appropriate drip rate is 100 mL/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not match the calculated drip rate. Option A, 100 mL/hr, is the correct drip rate for administering Ceftriaxone 750mg in 50mL D5W over 30 minutes.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
NCLEX PN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access
NCLEX PN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- Comprehensive NCLEX coverage
- 30 days access