NCLEX-PN
Nclex Exam Cram Practice Questions
1. Which direction given to the nursing assistant is most likely to accomplish the task of getting a urine specimen delivered to the lab immediately after collection?
- A. "Make it a stat delivery."?
- B. "Please do it as soon as you can after break."?
- C. "This client is delirious, and we're worried about urinary sepsis."?
- D. "Take this client to the bathroom now and collect a urine specimen from this voiding. Take the specimen to the lab immediately."?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Effective delegation depends on clear, concise direction that leaves no room for question or interpretation on the part of the one being delegated to. In this scenario, the most appropriate direction is to ensure the urine specimen is collected promptly and delivered to the lab immediately. Choice A is too vague and does not specify the urgency required. Choice B does not emphasize the immediate need for the specimen to be delivered. Choice C introduces unnecessary medical information that is beyond the scope of a nursing assistant and may cause confusion. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer as it provides clear instructions for immediate action without room for misunderstanding.
2. The nurse provides a postoperative client with an analgesic medication and darkens the room before the client goes to sleep for the night. The nurse's actions:
- A. help decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex.
- B. stimulate hormonal changes in the brain.
- C. help the client's circadian rhythm.
- D. alert the hypothalamus in the brain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's actions of providing an analgesic medication and darkening the room aim to decrease stimuli from the cerebral cortex. Reduction of environmental stimuli, especially light and noise, from the cerebral cortex, which is an area of arousal, facilitates sleep. By decreasing input to this area, the client is more likely to fall asleep and stay asleep. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the scenario does not involve stimulating hormonal changes, influencing the circadian rhythm, or alerting the hypothalamus.
3. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:
- A. scalding from hot bath water or spills.
- B. contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces.
- C. contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns.
- D. sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure.' First-degree burns primarily affect the outer layer of the skin and are commonly caused by overexposure to the sun without adequate protection, making it a significant concern for parents of small children. Choices A, B, and C describe other types of burns (scalding, contact with hot surfaces, and contact with flammable substances) that can cause more severe burns beyond the first-degree level. It is crucial for parents to be educated about sun safety measures to prevent sunburns in children.
4. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:
- A. Primary prevention.
- B. Secondary prevention.
- C. Tertiary prevention.
- D. Disability prevention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.
5. When are standard walkers typically used?
- A. When clients have poor balance, cannot stand up, have weak arms, and good hand strength.
- B. When clients have poor balance, have a broken leg, or have experienced amputation.
- C. When clients have poor balance, have cardiac problems, or cannot use crutches or a cane.
- D. When clients have poor balance, have an autoimmune disease, or have weak arms.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Standard walkers are typically used for clients who have poor balance, cardiac problems, or those who cannot use crutches or a cane. The rationale is correct in stating that a walker is suitable for individuals needing to bear partial weight and having strength in their wrists and arms to propel the walker forward. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the main reasons why standard walkers are used in clinical practice. Using a walker is not solely about having weak arms, good hand strength, a broken leg, experienced amputation, or an autoimmune disease. The primary focus is on addressing balance issues, cardiac problems, or the inability to use crutches or a cane effectively.
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