how often must physical restraints be released
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. How often should physical restraints be released?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to release physical restraints every 2 hours. Releasing restraints every 2 hours helps prevent complications associated with prolonged immobilization. Releasing restraints every 30 minutes (choice C) may be too frequent and disruptive to the client's care. Releasing restraints between 1 and 3 hours (choice B) introduces variability that could lead to inconsistencies in care. Releasing restraints at least every 4 hours (choice D) does not adhere to the recommended frequency of every 2 hours.

2. A client with dumping syndrome should ___________ while a client with GERD should ___________.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with dumping syndrome should lie down after eating to decrease the symptoms of dumping syndrome, which include rapid gastric emptying leading to various gastrointestinal symptoms. On the other hand, clients with GERD should sit up at least 30 minutes after meals to prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus. This position helps reduce symptoms by allowing gravity to keep the stomach contents in place, minimizing the chances of reflux. Therefore, the correct answer is to lie down 1 hour after eating for dumping syndrome and to sit up at least 30 minutes after eating for GERD. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the appropriate positioning for each condition.

3. The nurse is caring for a non-English speaking client. The surgeon has asked the nurse to hurry up and prepare the client for their scheduled procedure, which is running late. Which of the following is least appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Allowing the client's family member to serve as the interpreter is the least appropriate option. It is not recommended to rely on family members for interpretation as they may not be impartial, accurate, or trained to handle sensitive medical information. This can lead to misunderstandings, breaches in confidentiality, and compromised care. Choice A is a better option as it involves communication with the family member to manage expectations. Choice B is also appropriate as it prioritizes the need for a professional interpreter to ensure accurate communication. Choice D is a valid option as it explores the possibility of using a phone-service interpreting service to facilitate communication efficiently.

4. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure.' First-degree burns primarily affect the outer layer of the skin and are commonly caused by overexposure to the sun without adequate protection, making it a significant concern for parents of small children. Choices A, B, and C describe other types of burns (scalding, contact with hot surfaces, and contact with flammable substances) that can cause more severe burns beyond the first-degree level. It is crucial for parents to be educated about sun safety measures to prevent sunburns in children.

5. Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client would be 'Risk for Injury' as the client is prone to injuries during seizure activity, such as head trauma from falls. Epilepsy does not typically cause dysreflexia. While urinary retention may occur during or after a seizure, it is not a common nursing diagnosis related to epilepsy. 'Unbalanced Nutrition' is not a priority nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client compared to the immediate risk of injury during seizures.

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