Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements from a client may indicate that they are at a higher risk for a fall?

• A. "I would like to get out of bed but would like to put on my non-skid socks first."?
• B. "Can you make sure the two bedrails are raised before leaving the room?"?
• C. "I think I'm ready to walk a longer distance with the cane today."?
• D. "I need to get out of bed to go to the bathroom now. I cannot find my glasses but cannot wait."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'I need to get out of bed to go to the bathroom now. I cannot find my glasses but cannot wait.' This statement indicates that the client is in a hurry and unable to find their glasses, which could increase the risk of a fall due to impaired vision. Choice A about putting on non-skid socks shows the client's awareness of fall prevention, reducing the risk. Choice B demonstrates the client's request for bedrails to be raised, which is a safety measure, reducing the risk as well. Choice C suggests the client's readiness to walk a longer distance with a cane, indicating progress in mobility but not necessarily a higher fall risk.

2. Which of the following nursing diagnoses might be appropriate as Parkinson's disease progresses and complications develop?

• A. Impaired Physical Mobility
• B. Dysreflexia
• C. Hypothermia
• D. Impaired Dentition

Correct answer: A

Rationale: As Parkinson's disease progresses and complications develop, impaired physical mobility is a relevant nursing diagnosis due to symptoms like a shuffling gait and rigidity that can impair movement. Dysreflexia is not typically associated with Parkinson's disease; it is more commonly seen in spinal cord injuries. Hypothermia is a condition of low body temperature and is not directly related to Parkinson's disease progression. Impaired Dentition involves issues with teeth and oral health, which are not specific to Parkinson's disease complications.

3. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

4. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

5. A nurse who works in a medical care unit is told that she must float to the intensive care unit because of a short-staffing problem on that unit. The nurse reports to the unit and is assigned to three clients. The nurse is angry with the assignment because she believes that the assignment is more difficult than the assignment delegated to other nurses on the unit and because the intensive care unit nurses are each assigned only one client. The nurse should most appropriately take which action?

• A. Refuse to do the assignment
• B. Tell the nurse manager to call the nursing supervisor
• C. Return to the medical care unit and discuss the assignment with the nurse manager on that unit
• D. Ask the nurse manager of the intensive care unit to discuss the assignment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse feeling that the assignment is more difficult than what other nurses received should approach the nurse manager of the intensive care unit to discuss the assignment. By doing so, the nurse can seek clarification on the rationale for the assignment or confirm if it is genuinely more challenging. Refusing the assignment is not appropriate as it could impact patient care. Returning to the medical care unit would be considered client abandonment and does not directly address the conflict at hand. Instructing the nurse manager to involve the nursing supervisor is an aggressive approach that does not directly resolve the issue.

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