Nursing Elites

1. A nurse provides instructions to a mother about crib safety for her infant. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further instructions?

• A. ''Wood surfaces on the crib need to be free of splinters and cracks.''
• B. ''I need to keep large toys out of the crib.''
• C. ''The distance between the slats needs to be no more than 4 inches wide to prevent entrapment of my infant's head or body.''
• D. ''The drop side needs to be impossible for my infant to release.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, ''The distance between the slats needs to be no more than 4 inches wide to prevent entrapment of my infant's head or body.'' This statement indicates a need for further instructions as the distance between the slats should be no more than 2? inches to prevent entrapment of the infant's head and body, not 4 inches. Allowing a larger gap can pose a risk of entrapment or injury to the infant. Keeping large toys out of the crib is essential to prevent the infant from using them to climb out, which could result in serious injuries. Ensuring the drop side of the crib is impossible for the infant to release is crucial to prevent falls and injuries. Additionally, maintaining wood surfaces on the crib free of splinters, cracks, and lead-based paint is vital for the infant's safety and well-being.

2. While repositioning a comatose client, the nurse senses a tingling sensation as she lowers the bed. What action should she take?

• A. Unplug the bed's power source.
• B. Remove the client from the bed immediately.
• C. Notify the biomedical department at once.
• D. Turn off the oxygen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when sensing a tingling sensation while lowering the bed with a comatose client is to unplug the bed's power source. This should be the initial step as there may be a fault in the bed's grounding. Removing the client from the bed immediately is not safe until the electrical issue is resolved. Notifying the biomedical department is important but should come after ensuring the immediate safety of the client. Turning off the oxygen is not necessary unless there is a specific issue related to oxygen delivery, which is not indicated in this scenario.

3. When the healthcare provider is determining the appropriate size of a nasopharyngeal airway to insert, which body part should be measured on the client?

• A. corner of the mouth to tragus of the ear
• B. corner of the eye to top of the ear
• C. tip of the chin to the sternum
• D. tip of the nose to the earlobe

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A nasopharyngeal airway is measured from the tip of the nose to the earlobe. This measurement ensures that the airway is of the correct length to reach the nasopharynx without being too long or too short. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide the appropriate measurement for selecting the correct size of a nasopharyngeal airway. The distance from the corner of the mouth to the tragus of the ear (Choice A) is used to measure for an oropharyngeal airway, not a nasopharyngeal airway. Similarly, the other choices (B and C) do not correlate with the correct measurement of a nasopharyngeal airway.

4. Which statement about clinical pathways is inaccurate?

• A. They require daily updates.
• B. They illustrate the expected client response to their diagnosis.
• C. The objective is improvement or discharge from the facility.
• D. They are evidence-based.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that clinical pathways do not necessarily require daily updates. Clinical pathways can be customized to be updated daily, weekly, or at other intervals based on patient needs and facility protocols. Choice A is inaccurate as daily updates are not always mandatory for clinical pathways. Choices B, C, and D are accurate features of clinical pathways: they depict the expected client response to the diagnosis, aim for improvement or discharge, and are grounded in evidence-based practices to ensure optimal care.

5. Under what circumstances can an individual receive medical care without giving informed consent?

• A. when the durable power of attorney for health care is not available
• B. in an emergency, life-or-death situation
• C. when the physician is not available for discussion with the client
• D. when they (clients) are not able to speak for themselves

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An individual may receive medical care without giving informed consent in an emergency, life-or-death situation. This exception allows healthcare providers to provide immediate treatment to save a person's life or prevent serious harm when time is of the essence. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because in all other situations, informed consent is required. The durable power of attorney for health care should be involved if available, the physician should have a discussion with the client in non-life-threatening situations, and in cases where clients are unable to speak for themselves, their designated representative or responsible party should be involved in the consent process.

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