Nursing Elites

1. Why would a nurse employed at a hospital be asked by a nurse manager to review the organizational chart?

• A. To be aware of the geographic area that the organization serves
• B. To be familiar with the organization's line of authority
• C. To understand the organization's reason for existence
• D. To be familiar with the beliefs and values of the organization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To be familiar with the organization's line of authority.' Organizational charts provide a visual representation of the chain of command, reporting relationships, and structure within an organization. This helps employees understand who they report to, who reports to them, and the overall hierarchy. Choice A is incorrect because understanding the geographic area served is more about the organization's scope, not depicted in an organizational chart. Choice C is incorrect as it relates to the organization's reason for existence, usually found in its mission statement. Choice D is incorrect as beliefs and values are linked to the organization's culture, not typically shown in an organizational chart.

2. A client scheduled for a left mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection is wearing a wedding band on her left ring finger. The nurse should take which action?

• A. Tape the wedding band in place
• B. Ask the client to sign a release freeing the hospital of responsibility if the wedding band is lost during surgery
• C. Explain to the client why the wedding band must be removed
• D. Ask the client whether she would like to remove the wedding band or wear it to surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In most situations, a wedding band may be taped in place and worn during a surgical procedure. However, if there is a possibility that the client will experience swelling of the hand or fingers, the wedding band should be removed. On admission to a healthcare facility, the client is usually asked to sign a form that releases the agency from responsibility if a client's valuables are lost. After a mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, the client is at risk for lymphedema, which can result in swelling of the arm and hand on the affected side. Therefore, the appropriate nursing action is to ask the client to remove the wedding band and explain why. This ensures the client's safety and prevents potential complications. Option A is incorrect because taping the wedding band may not be sufficient if swelling occurs. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to remove the wedding band. Option D is incorrect because it fails to provide the client with the necessary information about the potential risks of wearing the wedding band during surgery.

3. A nurse is planning to administer an oral antibiotic to a client with a communicable disease. The client refuses the medication and tells the nurse that the medication causes abdominal cramping. The nurse responds, 'The medication is needed to prevent the spread of infection, and if you don't take it orally I will have to give it to you in an intramuscular injection.' Which statement accurately describes the nurse's response to the client?

• A. The nurse is justified in administering the medication by way of the intramuscular route because the client has a communicable disease.
• B. The nurse could be charged with assault.
• C. Assault is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. If a nurse threatens to give a client a medication that the client refuses or threatens to give a client an injection without the client's consent, the nurse may be charged with assault. Therefore, the nurse is not justified in administering the medication. Battery is any intentional touching without the client's consent.
• D. The nurse will be justified in administering the medication by the intramuscular route once a prescription has been obtained from the health care provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer explains the concept of assault, which is an intentional threat to bring about harmful or offensive contact. In the scenario provided, the nurse's statement about administering the medication via an intramuscular injection without the client's consent constitutes a threat, potentially falling under the definition of assault. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse's action is not automatically justified solely by the client having a communicable disease. Choice D is also incorrect because even with a prescription, the nurse cannot administer the medication without the client's consent. Choice C provides a detailed explanation distinguishing assault from battery, which helps in understanding the legal implications of the nurse's response in this situation.

4. An 80-year-old aphasic CVA client had abdominal surgery 2 days ago. Which of the following puts this client at the highest risk for inadequate pain management?

• A. Inability to turn, cough, and breathe deeply
• B. Inability to communicate pain
• C. Inability to ambulate freely
• D. Inability to use a bedside commode

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inability to communicate pain. In this scenario, the client's aphasia prevents them from verbally expressing their pain, which can lead to inadequate pain management if the healthcare team is not vigilant. The nurse must use alternative methods to assess and address the client's pain. Choices A, C, and D, although important considerations in postoperative care, do not directly relate to the client's ability to communicate pain, which is crucial for effective pain management in this case.

5. A nurse in a long-term care center notes that an employee is constantly calling in sick. Which action should the nurse take initially to handle this problem?

• A. Documenting the employee's absences in the personnel file
• B. Discussing the situation with the employee and reminding them of the agency's employment standards
• C. Reporting the employee to administration
• D. Issuing a written warning to the employee

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When an employee demonstrates excessive absenteeism, the initial action a nurse should take is to discuss the situation with the employee and remind them of the agency's employment standards. It is important to communicate openly with the employee to understand the reasons for their frequent absences and remind them of the expectations regarding attendance. This approach allows for a constructive dialogue and provides the employee with an opportunity to rectify their behavior. Documenting the employee's absences in the personnel file may be necessary if the issue persists despite the discussion. Reporting the employee to administration should be considered only if the employee fails to improve after the initial discussion. Issuing a written warning should be a subsequent step if the employee continues to violate the attendance policies even after reminders and discussions.

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