NCLEX-PN
Nclex PN Questions and Answers
1. An example of a process standard on a med-surg unit is:
- A. a procedure for changing IV tubing.
- B. a policy for staffing.
- C. the job description of the CEO (chief executive officer).
- D. a procedure for checking waveforms on a client being treated with an intra-aortic balloon pump.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Process standards define the actions and behaviors required by staff to provide care on a med-surg unit. A procedure for changing IV tubing is a critical psychomotor skill necessary for safe and effective patient care in this setting. Choice B, a policy for staffing, pertains more to organizational management rather than specific care processes on the unit. Choice C, the job description of the CEO, delineates the responsibilities of the organization's top executive and is not a process standard for frontline staff. Choice D, a procedure for checking waveforms on a client with an intra-aortic balloon pump, is more specific to a cardiac care unit and not typically performed on a med-surg unit.
2. Upon first meeting, a new nurse manager makes eye contact, smiles, initiates conversation about the previous work experience of nurses, and encourages active participation by nurses in the dialogue. Her behavior is an example of:
- A. Aggressiveness.
- B. Passive aggressiveness.
- C. Passiveness.
- D. Assertiveness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assertiveness.' This nurse manager is demonstrating assertive behavior by confidently engaging with the nurses, showing interest in their work experience, and encouraging active participation. Aggressive behavior is forceful and dominating, while passive behavior is submissive and timid. Passive-aggressive behavior involves indirect manipulation or control, which is not demonstrated in this scenario.
3. The laws enacted by states to provide immunity from liability to persons who provide emergency care at an accident scene are called:
- A. Good Samaritan laws.
- B. HIPAA.
- C. Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA).
- D. OBRA.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Good Samaritan laws. These laws protect individuals who provide voluntary emergency care from being held liable for any unintended injury or harm that may occur during the care. Good Samaritan laws encourage individuals to assist in emergencies without fear of legal repercussions. HIPAA, on the other hand, focuses on safeguarding patient information and privacy, ensuring confidentiality. The Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA) pertains to a patient's rights to make decisions about their medical treatment and advance directives. OBRA, enacted in the late 1980s, aims to improve the quality of care in nursing homes and enhance residents' quality of life, focusing on nursing home reform and standards, which is not directly related to immunity for emergency care providers.
4. The healthcare professional seeks to assess the renal function of an elderly client who is about to receive a nephrotoxic medication. Which of the following labs provides the best indicator for renal function?
- A. urinalysis
- B. creatinine and blood urea nitrogen
- C. chemistry of electrolytes
- D. creatinine clearance
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the context of an elderly client, assessing renal function before administering a nephrotoxic medication is crucial. While urinalysis and blood urea nitrogen provide valuable information on hydration status and overall health clues, they are not specific indicators of renal function. The chemistry of electrolytes may show abnormalities in renal failure, but it does not directly measure the kidneys' ability to eliminate waste. Creatinine clearance, on the other hand, is considered the best indicator for renal function in the elderly. This test accounts for decreases in lean body mass that can affect blood creatinine levels and is widely used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate, reflecting the kidneys' filtration capability. Therefore, creatinine clearance is the most appropriate lab test to assess renal function in this scenario.
5. The LPN is checking for residual before administering enteral feeding through a PEG tube. Which of these steps is incorrect?
- A. The LPN elevates the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees.
- B. If the residual is greater than 200mL, the LPN should not administer the enteral feeding.
- C. The LPN should discard the residual before administering the tube feeding.
- D. The residual pH level is tested to ensure appropriate placement.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The incorrect step is choice C. The residual should be discarded before administering the tube feeding. Discarding the residual is essential to prevent contamination and ensure accurate measurement of the enteral feeding. Elevating the head of the bed by at least 30 degrees (choice A) is correct as it helps prevent aspiration during feeding. Testing the pH level of the residual (choice D) ensures proper placement of the tube. Withholding feeding if the residual is greater than 200mL (choice B) is crucial to prevent overfeeding, making this statement correct.
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