NCLEX-PN
Nclex PN Questions and Answers
1. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?
- A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
- B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
- C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
- D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
2. What is the most common cause of injury from a house fire?
- A. Explosion
- B. Falls from second-story windows
- C. Thermal damage to skin and body surfaces
- D. Inhalation injury
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Inhalation injury is the most common cause of injury from a house fire. When a fire occurs, the smoke produced contains harmful gases and particles that can be inhaled, leading to serious respiratory issues. This makes inhalation injury the primary concern during a house fire. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be the primary cause of injury. While explosions may occur in some cases, inhalation of smoke and toxic fumes is generally the most prevalent danger. Falls from windows and thermal damage to the skin are also significant risks but typically occur after inhalation injuries in the sequence of events during a house fire.
3. The LPN is receiving the report on a comatose client at the start of the shift at 1500. What statement should be of most concern?
- A. The client was repositioned on his right side at 1100.
- B. The client was bathed, and the skin was assessed head-to-toe at 0900 with no abnormal findings.
- C. The client's PEG tube was changed 6 months ago.
- D. The client's indwelling urinary catheter was last changed 5 days ago.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When caring for a comatose client, it is crucial to monitor and maintain the integrity of the indwelling urinary catheter to prevent urinary tract infections and other complications. Changing the urinary catheter less frequently than recommended increases the risk of infection. In this scenario, the most concerning issue is the prolonged duration since the last change of the indwelling urinary catheter, which poses an immediate risk to the client's health. While repositioning every 2 hours is essential to prevent skin breakdown, the most critical aspect in this case is the catheter care. Bathing and skin assessment are important for overall hygiene and skin integrity but are not as urgent as catheter care. The timing of the PEG tube change, while relevant for care planning, is not as immediate a concern as the indwelling urinary catheter status.
4. A health care provider informs a nurse that the husband of an unconscious client with terminal cancer will not grant permission for a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The health care provider tells the nurse to perform a 'slow code' and let the client 'rest in peace' if she stops breathing. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Telling the health care provider that the client would probably want to die in peace
- B. Telling the health care provider that if the client stops breathing, the health care provider will be called before any other actions are taken
- C. Telling the health care provider that all of the nurses on the unit agree with this plan
- D. Telling the health care provider that 'slow codes' are not acceptable
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse may not violate a family's request regarding the client's treatment plan. A 'slow code' is not acceptable, and the nurse should state this to the health care provider. The definition of a 'slow code' varies among health care facilities and personnel and could be interpreted as not performing resuscitative procedures as quickly as a competent person would. Resuscitative procedures that are performed more slowly than recommended by the American Heart Association are below the standard of care and could therefore serve as the basis for a lawsuit. The other options are inappropriate: Option A is speculative and does not address the issue directly; Option B does not challenge the unethical practice of a 'slow code'; Option C is irrelevant and does not address the ethical concerns raised by the health care provider's request.
5. When caring for clients with Buck’s Traction, the major areas of importance should be:
- A. nutrition, elimination, comfort, safety
- B. ROM exercises, transportation
- C. nutrition, elimination, comfort, safety
- D. elimination, safety, isotonic exercises
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for clients with Buck’s Traction, the major areas of importance should be nutrition, elimination, comfort, and safety. Proper nutrition, including a diet high in protein with adequate fluids, is essential for healing and recovery. Elimination refers to maintaining regular bowel and bladder function. Comfort is crucial to ensure the patient's well-being while in traction, and safety measures should be followed to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. ROM exercises are not typically a primary concern with Buck’s Traction, making choices A and B incorrect. Isotonic exercises are not specifically related to the care of a client in Buck's Traction, making choice D incorrect.
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