NCLEX-PN
Nclex Questions Management of Care
1. When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, the nurse should administer:
- A. Indomethacin
- B. Codeine
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Compazine
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When managing nausea related to Morphine epidural analgesia, Compazine is the appropriate medication to administer. Compazine, also known as prochlorperazine, is commonly used to treat nausea and vomiting. It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain that trigger nausea and vomiting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Indomethacin, Codeine, and Ibuprofen are not typically used to manage nausea associated with Morphine epidural analgesia.
2. What is the 24-hour day-night cycle known as?
- A. circadian rhythm
- B. infradian rhythm
- C. ultradian rhythm
- D. non-REM rhythm
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is circadian rhythm. Circadian rhythm refers to the rhythmic repetition of patterns that occur approximately every 24 hours, regulating various biological processes related to the day-night cycle. Infradian rhythm, which is longer than 24 hours, and ultradian rhythm, which is shorter than 24 hours, are not the correct terms for the 24-hour cycle. Non-REM rhythm does not specifically relate to the 24-hour day-night cycle, making it an incorrect choice.
3. A client expresses anxiety about having magnetic resonance imaging performed. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. "You can receive a sedative to help you relax during the test."?
- B. "There is absolutely nothing to worry about."?
- C. "There is no discomfort with this test, so don't be anxious."?
- D. "The test won't last long, so you can handle it."?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response acknowledges the client's anxiety and offers a practical solution to alleviate it, showing empathy and addressing the client's concerns. Offering a sedative to help relax during the test is a proactive approach to managing the client's anxiety. Choices B and C dismiss the client's feelings by invalidating their anxiety, which can further escalate their distress. Choice D downplays the client's feelings by implying they should not be worried, which does not effectively address the client's emotional state.
4. All of the following clients are in need of an emergency assessment except:
- A. a bleeding client who has an injury from falling debris.
- B. an unresponsive client.
- C. a client with an old injury.
- D. a pregnant woman with imminent delivery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client with an old injury.' Emergency assessments are required for immediate and life-threatening situations. Clients A, B, and D are in need of emergency assessments due to their critical conditions. Choice C, a client with an old injury, does not require an emergency assessment as it is not an acute or life-threatening situation. While the client with an old injury may still need medical attention, it does not necessitate an emergency assessment as the condition is not currently life-threatening or in need of immediate intervention.
5. A client with which of the following conditions is at risk for developing a high ammonia level?
- A. renal failure
- B. psoriasis
- C. lupus
- D. cirrhosis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Cirrhosis is the correct answer. In cirrhosis, the liver is unable to detoxify ammonia to urea, leading to an accumulation of ammonia in the blood. This can result in hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by high ammonia levels affecting brain function. Renal failure (Choice A), psoriasis (Choice B), and lupus (Choice C) are not directly associated with an increased risk of high ammonia levels as seen in cirrhosis.
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