Nursing Elites

1. What action should the emergency triage nurse take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting?

• A. Place the client in isolation until further assessment is completed.
• B. Seclude the client from other clients and visitors.
• C. Perform no intervention until test results confirm a diagnosis.
• D. Don personal protective equipment immediately.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the emergency triage nurse to take upon receiving the history that a client has a severe cough, fever, night sweats, and body wasting is to seclude the client from other clients and visitors. These symptoms are suggestive of tuberculosis, a highly infectious disease. By secluding the client, the nurse can prevent the potential spread of the infection to others. Donning personal protective equipment, including gown, gloves, and a mask, is crucial when providing care to the client, but the immediate priority is to prevent the spread of infection by isolating the client. Placing the client in isolation until further assessment is completed ensures that the client is kept away from others until a proper diagnosis and treatment plan can be established, reducing the risk of transmission. Performing no intervention until test results confirm a diagnosis is inappropriate as immediate isolation is necessary in suspected cases of highly infectious diseases like tuberculosis.

2. A nurse is reviewing the notes written by a nurse on a previous shift. Which note in the client's record reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation?

• A. The client's wound is healing well.
• B. The client seems anxious.
• C. The client's intake was 360 mL
• D. The client is voiding large amounts

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quality documentation and reporting require information to be factual, accurate, complete, current, and organized. Choice C, 'The client's intake was 360 mL,' reflects the correct use of guidelines for documentation as it provides a specific and measurable observation. This note meets the criteria for quality documentation by being specific and quantifiable. Choices A, B, and D lack specificity and quantifiability. Choice A includes a subjective term 'well,' choice B uses 'seems' indicating uncertainty, and choice D uses a vague term 'large' without quantifying the amount.

3. A test that can correctly identify those who do not have a given disease is:

• A. specific.
• B. sensitive.
• C. negative culture.
• D. marginal finding.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'specific.' A specific test correctly identifies individuals who do not have a particular disease. In this case, since the lab culture report is negative for the suspected infection, it means the test is good at ruling out the disease. 'Sensitive' (choice B) would be incorrect as sensitivity refers to a test's ability to correctly identify individuals who do have the disease. 'Negative culture' (choice C) is incorrect as it describes the result rather than the test's characteristic. 'Marginal finding' (choice D) is unrelated to the concept of correctly identifying individuals without the disease.

4. Which isolation procedure will be followed for secretions and blood?

• A. Respiratory Isolation
• B. Standard Precautions
• C. Contact Isolation
• D. Droplet Isolation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Standard Precautions. Standard precautions are taken in all situations for all clients and involve all body secretions except sweat. They are designed to reduce the rate of transmission of microbes from one host to another or one source to another. Respiratory Isolation (Choice A) is used for diseases transmitted by airborne particles, not secretions and blood. Contact Isolation (Choice C) is for clients known or suspected to be infected with microorganisms that can be transmitted by direct or indirect contact. Droplet Isolation (Choice D) is used for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, talking, or procedures.

5. Which of these statements from the caregiver of a palliative care client indicates a proper understanding?

• A. This treatment plan usually indicates a prognosis of less than 6 months.
• B. We will need to stay in the hospital to receive this level of care.
• C. The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.
• D. The medications to treat the underlying disease will be continued.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'The main therapeutic goals are comfort and better quality of life.' This statement reflects a proper understanding of palliative care, which focuses on improving the patient's quality of life and providing comfort. It does not necessarily mean a prognosis of less than 6 months or require hospitalization. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care can be provided regardless of the prognosis. Choice B is wrong as palliative care can be administered in various settings, not just hospitals. Choice D is inaccurate as palliative care aims to improve symptoms and quality of life, so medications may be adjusted but not necessarily stopped.

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