Nursing Elites

1. Once the nurse has made initial rounds and checked all of the assigned clients, which client should be cared for first?

• A. A client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 p.m.
• B. A client in skeletal traction who has just received pain medication
• C. A client scheduled for physical therapy at 11 a.m.
• D. A client who is able to perform activities of daily living independently

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority should be given to the client who is scheduled for surgery at 1 p.m. Preparing a client for surgery involves various tasks such as physical and emotional preparation, following healthcare provider instructions, and potential last-minute changes in the surgical schedule. It is crucial to ensure the client is adequately prepared. Providing care to a client who just received pain medication can wait until the medication takes effect. Clients who are independent in performing daily activities and those scheduled for physical therapy later in the morning are not as high a priority as preparing a client for an upcoming surgery. Therefore, the client scheduled for surgery should be cared for first to ensure all necessary preparations are completed.

2. A client admitted to the hospital has a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order in his medical record. The nurse understands which information about DNR orders?

• A. The only individuals who may change the DNR order are healthcare providers
• B. The DNR order can be changed if the client's condition warrants it
• C. The DNR order does not remain fixed for the duration of the client's hospitalization
• D. The DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that the DNR order requires frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. If the client's condition changes, the DNR order may need to be changed. For this reason, DNR orders require frequent review as specified by state or agency policy. A DNR order may be changed at any time and does not remain in effect for the duration of the client's hospitalization. The client's request regarding DNR status is the priority. Choice A is incorrect because healthcare providers, not just immediate family members, may change the DNR order based on the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect as DNR orders can be changed if the client's condition warrants it, not remaining unchanged. Choice C is incorrect as DNR orders are not fixed for the duration of hospitalization, they can be modified based on the client's needs.

3. Hearing screening of prematurely born infants is an effective means of identifying disease and is an example of:

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Secondary prevention.
• C. Tertiary prevention.
• D. Disability prevention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Secondary prevention. Hearing screening for prematurely born infants falls under secondary prevention, which aims to identify and treat a condition in its early stages to prevent further complications. Primary prevention (choice A) focuses on preventing the disease from occurring, while tertiary prevention (choice C) involves managing complications and preventing disability. Choice D, disability prevention, is not a recognized category of prevention. In this context, the screening helps in early identification of hearing loss, allowing for timely intervention to prevent further impairment or complications, aligning with the principles of secondary prevention.

4. Which of the following is an indication for electroencephalography?

• A. paralysis
• B. neuropathy
• C. seizure disorder
• D. myocardial infarction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'seizure disorder.' Electroencephalography is used to assess clients with seizure disorders by recording the brain's electrical activity. Seizure disorder is a primary indication for an EEG as it helps in diagnosing and managing seizure activity. Paralysis (choice A) is not typically an indication for an EEG as it relates to loss of muscle function rather than brain activity. Neuropathy (choice B) involves nerve damage and is not directly assessed by an EEG. Myocardial infarction (choice D) is related to heart issues and is not a condition that an EEG is used to diagnose.

5. The LPN is assisting the client with an NG tube with activities of daily living. Which of these statements would indicate a need for teaching reinforcement?

• A. "Since I'm not eating or drinking by mouth, I do not need to brush my teeth as often."?
• B. "I should remain sitting up at a 45-degree angle or higher for 30 minutes after a feeding."?
• C. "I can clean around the tube with water and mild soap."?
• D. "I should avoid using Vaseline around the nostril and tube."?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is, "Since I'm not eating or drinking by mouth, I do not need to brush my teeth as often."? This statement indicates a need for teaching reinforcement because even when an NG tube is in place, the client should still brush their teeth twice daily. Good oral hygiene is essential to reduce the risk of introducing bacteria that may cause an infection. Choice B is incorrect because remaining sitting up at a 45-degree angle or higher for 30 minutes after a feeding is a correct statement regarding NG tube care, promoting proper digestion and reducing the risk of aspiration. Choice C is also incorrect because cleaning around the tube with water and mild soap is an appropriate practice to maintain cleanliness and prevent infection. Choice D is incorrect because advising to avoid using Vaseline around the nostril and tube is a proper instruction to prevent skin breakdown, occlusion of the tube, and potential aspiration of Vaseline into the lungs.

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