Nursing Elites

1. When working with multicultural populations, the nurse should consider all of the following when planning care for a client with an altered sexuality pattern except:

• A. some Hispanic and Native-American cultures are very open when discussing sexuality.
• B. some cultures view the postpartum period as a state of impurity.
• C. some women in the African-American culture view childbearing as a validation of their femaleness.
• D. some Native-American women believe monthly menstruation maintains physical well-being and harmony.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When working with multicultural populations, it is essential to understand cultural variations in beliefs and practices related to sexuality. While it is true that some cultures view the postpartum period as a state of impurity and that some women in the African-American culture view childbearing as a validation of their femaleness, the statement 'some Hispanic and Native-American cultures are very open when discussing sexuality' is incorrect. In reality, many cultures, including Hispanic and Native-American cultures, are sometimes hesitant to discuss sexuality. For example, some Navajos, Hispanics, and Orthodox Jews may consider the postpartum period as impure, leading to seclusion of women until the end of bleeding, marked by a ritual bath. Additionally, many Native-American women believe in the importance of monthly menstruation for physical well-being and harmony. Therefore, the statement about Hispanic and Native-American cultures being very open about discussing sexuality is not accurate in the context of working with multicultural populations.

2. A day care center has asked the nurse to provide education for parents regarding safety in the home. What type of preventive care does this represent?

• A. Primary
• B. Secondary
• C. Tertiary
• D. Health promotion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Primary prevention involves activities that promote wellness or prevent illness or injury. Educating parents about safety measures in the home aims to prevent injuries, making it a primary prevention strategy. Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and intervention in diseases or injuries. Tertiary prevention involves reducing disability and promoting optimal functioning in relation to a disease or injury. Health promotion encompasses activities that enhance a client's overall health and well-being. In this scenario, educating parents about safety in the home falls under primary prevention as it aims to prevent injuries before they occur.

3. A nurse calculates a newborn infant's Apgar score 1 minute after birth and determines that the score is 6. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• B. Gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen
• C. Recheck the score in 5 minutes
• D. Provide no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Apgar score is a method for rapidly evaluating an infant's cardiorespiratory adaptation after birth. The nurse assigns scores in five areas: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex response, and color, totaling the scores. A score of 8 to 10 requires no action other than supporting the infant's spontaneous efforts and observation. A score of 4 to 7 indicates the need to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. If the score is 1 to 3, the infant requires resuscitation. Therefore, in this scenario with an Apgar score of 6, the correct action is to gently stimulate the infant by rubbing his back while administering oxygen. Initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation would be excessive at this point, and rechecking the score in 5 minutes may delay necessary interventions. Providing no action except to support the infant's spontaneous efforts is insufficient for a score of 6, indicating the need for stimulation and oxygen administration.

4. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

5. When assessing Mr. Lee's eye condition, what general information should the nurse seek?

• A. Type of employment.
• B. Burning or itchy sensation in the eyes.
• C. Position of the eyelids.
• D. Existence of floaters.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient's eye condition, the nurse should seek general information such as the type of employment, activities, allergies, medications, lenses, and protective devices used. This information helps in understanding potential exposures to irritants and risks related to activities. While the presence of burning or itchy sensation in the eyes, position of the eyelids, and existence of floaters are important aspects to assess during a focused eye examination, during the initial assessment, the type of employment is more relevant for understanding possible environmental factors affecting eye health.

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