the role of the incident report in risk management is
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Next Generation Nclex Questions Overview 3.0 ATI Quizlet

1. What is the role of the incident report in risk management?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'To provide data for analysis by a risk manager to determine how future problems can be avoided.' Incident reports are a crucial tool for collecting information about incidents to analyze them and prevent similar issues in the future. They are not primarily used for liability protection or disciplining staff. Therefore, choices A and C are incorrect. Selecting 'All of the above' (choice D) is not accurate as incident reports serve a specific purpose related to data analysis and risk prevention, excluding liability protection and staff discipline.

2. All of the following interventions should be performed when fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress except:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When fetal heart monitoring indicates fetal distress, interventions are aimed at improving oxygenation to the fetus. Increasing maternal fluids helps improve placental perfusion and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Administering oxygen also aids in increasing oxygen supply to the fetus. Turning the mother can help relieve pressure on the vena cava, optimizing blood flow to the placenta. Therefore, decreasing maternal fluids would not be performed as it can further compromise placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation, making it the exception. Decreasing maternal fluids could potentially exacerbate fetal distress by reducing oxygen delivery and nutrient supply to the fetus, which is contrary to the goal of managing fetal distress.

3. Which of the following conditions has a severe complication of respiratory failure?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Guillain-Barr� syndrome is characterized by a severe complication of respiratory failure due to the involvement of the peripheral nerves that control breathing. While Bell's palsy, trigeminal neuralgia, and tetanus are also conditions affecting peripheral nerves, they do not typically lead to respiratory failure like Guillain-Barr� syndrome. Bell's palsy causes facial muscle weakness, trigeminal neuralgia results in severe facial pain, and tetanus leads to muscle stiffness and spasms, but none of these conditions directly involve respiratory failure.

4. Which of the following foods present a problem for a client diagnosed with Celiac Disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Celiac disease, also known as celiac sprue, is a malabsorption disorder affecting the small intestine due to a problem with ingesting gluten, a protein found in wheat, rye, oats, and barley. Therefore, oats or barley cereal would present a problem for a client with Celiac Disease as they contain gluten. Fresh vegetables, butter, coffee, and tea, on the other hand, do not contain gluten and should not pose any issues for individuals with this disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is oats or barley cereal. Choices A, C, and D are not problematic for clients with Celiac Disease as they are gluten-free.

5. When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, which of the following factors is least relevant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing a client's risk for elimination impairment, family history is the least relevant factor to consider. Current medications can affect elimination functions through side effects, ambulation abilities can impact mobility to access toileting facilities, and hydration status directly influences urinary output and bowel function. Family history, although providing some context, does not have a direct impact on the client's current risk of elimination impairment.

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