Nursing Elites

1. At what point in the nurse-client relationship should termination first be addressed?

• A. in the working phase
• B. in the termination phase
• C. in the orientation phase
• D. when the client initially brings up the topic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Termination in the nurse-client relationship should first be addressed in the orientation phase. This is because the client has a right to know the parameters of the relationship from the beginning. During the orientation phase, it is important to discuss if the relationship is time-limited, inform the client about the number of sessions, or explain that it is open-ended with the termination date to be negotiated later. Addressing termination in the orientation phase helps establish transparency and clear communication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because termination discussions should ideally start at the beginning of the relationship to set appropriate expectations.

2. Common problems for supervisors include all of the following except:

• A. the supervisor facilitates development of staff members
• B. the supervisor micromanages staff members
• C. the supervisor wants to control the style in which a staff member correctly performs a task
• D. the supervisor does not delegate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Common problems for supervisors include micromanaging staff members, wanting to control the style in which a staff member performs a task, and not delegating tasks effectively. These behaviors can hinder team building and overall effectiveness. Facilitating the development of staff members, on the other hand, is a positive attribute for a supervisor as it helps in nurturing the skills and growth of the team members. Therefore, the correct answer is 'the supervisor facilitates development of staff members' as this is not a common problem but a desirable quality in a supervisor.

3. What is the most likely reason for a hospitalized adult client who routinely works from midnight until 8 a.m. to have a temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m.?

• A. delta sleep
• B. slow brain waves
• C. pneumonia
• D. circadian rhythm

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'circadian rhythm.' Circadian rhythms are biological cycles that last about 24 hours. The sleep-wake cycle is closely tied to circadian rhythms, affecting body temperature. Normally, core body temperature drops during sleep, reaching its 24-hour low around 4 a.m. In this case, the client's temperature of 99.1�F at 4 a.m. is likely due to the disruption of their circadian rhythm caused by working from midnight until 8 a.m. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because delta sleep, slow brain waves, and pneumonia do not directly explain the temperature fluctuation based on circadian rhythm.

4. What dietary alterations should a pregnant client with congenital heart disease expect?

• A. reduced calories and reduced fat
• B. caffeine and sodium restrictions
• C. decreased protein and increased complex carbohydrates
• D. fluid restriction and reduced calories

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a pregnant client with congenital heart disease, caffeine should be restricted as it can increase heart rate, which is already under stress due to pregnancy. Sodium restrictions may be necessary to prevent fluid retention, which can worsen the client's heart condition. Decreasing calories, fat, protein, or fluid may not be appropriate as these can lead to nutrient deficiencies or inadequate energy intake, which is crucial during pregnancy. Therefore, options A, C, and D are not the expected dietary alterations in the client's diet during pregnancy with congenital heart disease.

5. A nurse provides instructions to a mother about crib safety for her infant. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further instructions?

• A. ''Wood surfaces on the crib need to be free of splinters and cracks.''
• B. ''I need to keep large toys out of the crib.''
• C. ''The distance between the slats needs to be no more than 4 inches wide to prevent entrapment of my infant's head or body.''
• D. ''The drop side needs to be impossible for my infant to release.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is, ''The distance between the slats needs to be no more than 4 inches wide to prevent entrapment of my infant's head or body.'' This statement indicates a need for further instructions as the distance between the slats should be no more than 2? inches to prevent entrapment of the infant's head and body, not 4 inches. Allowing a larger gap can pose a risk of entrapment or injury to the infant. Keeping large toys out of the crib is essential to prevent the infant from using them to climb out, which could result in serious injuries. Ensuring the drop side of the crib is impossible for the infant to release is crucial to prevent falls and injuries. Additionally, maintaining wood surfaces on the crib free of splinters, cracks, and lead-based paint is vital for the infant's safety and well-being.

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