Nursing Elites

1. The PN is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse can expect the lab work to show:

• A. elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.
• B. decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
• C. elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
• D. decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the pituitary releases too much antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the client to produce a large amount of dilute urine (decreased osmolarity) and leading to dehydration (elevated serum osmolarity). Therefore, the correct answer is decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity. Choice C, elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, is incorrect for diabetes insipidus, as it is more characteristic of syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH). Choices A and B, elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity, and decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, respectively, are generally not seen in diabetes insipidus, as urine and serum osmolarity typically move in opposite directions in this condition.

2. The client is admitted to the hospital following a motor vehicle accident and has sustained a closed chest wound. Which assessment finding is consistent with a flail chest?

• A. Biot's respirations
• B. Sucking sounds during respirations
• C. Paradoxical chest wall movement
• D. Hypotension and bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct assessment finding consistent with a flail chest is paradoxical chest wall movement. This occurs when a segment of the chest wall moves in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during respiration. Biot's respirations (Choice A) are a pattern of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea. Sucking sounds during respirations (Choice B) may indicate air entering or leaving the chest cavity through a wound. Hypotension and bradycardia (Choice D) may be present due to other factors such as shock, but they are not specific to a flail chest.

3. A 28-year-old male has a diagnosis of AIDS. The patient has had a two-year history of AIDS. The most likely cognitive deficits include which of the following?

• A. Disorientation
• B. Sensory changes
• C. Inability to produce sound
• D. Hearing deficits

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In individuals with AIDS, cognitive deficits commonly manifest as confusion and disorientation, making choice A, 'Disorientation,' the correct answer. Sensory changes (choice B) and hearing deficits (choice D) are more related to sensory processing rather than cognitive impairment. 'Inability to produce sound' (choice C) is more indicative of a speech or language deficit rather than a cognitive impairment typically seen in AIDS patients.

4. A nurse is taking the health history of an 85-year-old client. Which of the following physical findings is consistent with normal aging?

• A. Increase in subcutaneous fat.
• B. Diminished cough reflex.
• C. Long-term memory loss.
• D. Myopia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Diminished cough reflex.' Diminished cough reflex is a physical finding consistent with normal aging in older adults, which can increase the risk of aspiration and atelectasis. An increase in subcutaneous fat actually raises the risk of pressure ulcers. While long-term memory is typically preserved in aging unless affected by dementia, short-term memory often declines. Myopia (near-sightedness) is common in younger individuals, but presbyopia (far-sightedness) is more common with aging. Additionally, individuals with myopia may experience an improvement in vision as they age.

5. An RN on your unit has had an argument with the family of a client regarding the way in which the RN has changed the client's dressing. The family is adamant that the dressing change was performed incorrectly. The RN insists that sterile technique was observed. As an RN manager, what is the best response?

• A. Meet with the family member and the RN to discuss the disagreement regarding the dressing change.
• B. Talk to the family member and assure them that the nurse followed the hospital procedure.
• C. Discuss the dressing change procedure with the RN and compare it to a current textbook.
• D. Change the RN's assignment the next day to another client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When conflict occurs, it is best to meet with both parties together to discuss the problem. This approach allows each party to hear what the other is saying and prevents the RN manager from being caught in the middle. By facilitating a discussion between the family member and the RN, they can work together to find a resolution or the manager can mediate. This promotes open communication, understanding, and collaboration. Option A is the correct choice because it emphasizes addressing the conflict directly and seeking a mutual understanding. Option B is incorrect because just assuring the family member may not address the underlying issues. Option C is incorrect as it does not involve the family member in the resolution process. Option D is inappropriate as it doesn't address the conflict but rather avoids it by changing the RN's assignment.

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