Nursing Elites

1. The PN is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse can expect the lab work to show:

• A. elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.
• B. decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
• C. elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity.
• D. decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In diabetes insipidus, the pituitary releases too much antidiuretic hormone (ADH), causing the client to produce a large amount of dilute urine (decreased osmolarity) and leading to dehydration (elevated serum osmolarity). Therefore, the correct answer is decreased urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity. Choice C, elevated urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, is incorrect for diabetes insipidus, as it is more characteristic of syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH). Choices A and B, elevated urine osmolarity and elevated serum osmolarity, and decreased urine osmolarity and decreased serum osmolarity, respectively, are generally not seen in diabetes insipidus, as urine and serum osmolarity typically move in opposite directions in this condition.

2. What skin color does a client with jaundice have?

• A. pale
• B. ruddy
• C. yellow
• D. pink

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: yellow. Jaundice is a condition characterized by yellowing of the skin due to increased levels of bilirubin in the blood. This excess bilirubin causes the skin and whites of the eyes to appear yellow. Choice A, pale, is not typically associated with jaundice. Choice B, ruddy, describes a reddish skin color and is not indicative of jaundice. Choice D, pink, is a normal skin color and not a symptom of jaundice.

3. The client with a history of advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) had conventional gallbladder surgery 2 days previously. Which intervention has priority for preventing respiratory complications?

• A. Incentive spirometry every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Coughing and deep breathing every 1 to 2 hours.
• C. Getting the client out of bed 4 times daily as ordered by the physician.
• D. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute according to the physician's order.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority intervention for preventing respiratory complications in a client with advanced COPD who underwent gallbladder surgery is to get the client out of bed 4 times daily. This helps prevent pooling of secretions in the lungs and promotes better lung expansion. Incentive spirometry, coughing, and deep breathing are essential interventions; however, they should be performed more frequently, ideally every 1 to 2 hours, rather than every 4 hours or 4 times daily. Giving oxygen at 4 L/minute could potentially decrease the client's respiratory drive, which is not the priority in this case.

4. The client is scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina. What is the most likely preoperative nursing diagnosis for this client?

• A. Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.
• B. Deficient knowledge (preoperative and postoperative activities) related to lack of information.
• C. Acute pain related to tissue injury and decreased circulation to the eye.
• D. Risk for infection related to the eye injury.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct preoperative nursing diagnosis for a client scheduled for surgical repair of a detached retina is 'Anxiety related to loss of vision and potential failure to regain vision.' A client facing the threat of permanent blindness due to a detached retina is likely to experience anxiety. Addressing this anxiety is crucial before providing education, as severe anxiety can hinder the client's ability to absorb new information. The nurse should offer emotional support, encourage the client to express concerns, and clarify any misconceptions. Acute pain is not a typical symptom of a detached retina, and the risk of infection preoperatively is minimal, making choices C and D less relevant in this scenario.

5. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

• A. Headache
• B. Pruritus
• C. Vomiting
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

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