Nursing Elites

1. What could be a possible cause for the symptoms experienced by the client in Question 28?

• A. iron deficiency
• B. folate deficiency
• C. peptic ulcer
• D. iron overload

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Given the client's symptoms of fatigue, shortness of breath, and lightheadedness, along with her gender and fad dieting, the most likely cause is iron deficiency. Iron deficiency commonly presents with these symptoms due to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity in the blood. Folate deficiency would typically present with different symptoms such as mouth sores and changes in skin, not fitting the client's presentation. Peptic ulcer would manifest with abdominal pain, not primarily with the symptoms described. Iron overload would present with symptoms such as joint pain and fatigue, which are not consistent with the client's presentation.

2. The client with chronic pancreatitis should be taught how to monitor for which of the following possible additional problems associated with pancreatic disease?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diabetes
• C. Hypothyroidism
• D. Graves' disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is diabetes. In chronic pancreatitis, the pancreas may become unable to produce sufficient insulin, leading to diabetes. This connection underscores the importance of monitoring blood sugar levels and understanding the signs and symptoms of diabetes in clients with chronic pancreatitis. Choice A, hypertension, is not directly associated with pancreatic disease but rather with cardiovascular health. Choice C, hypothyroidism, and Choice D, Graves' disease, are unrelated to pancreatic disease and are endocrine disorders affecting the thyroid gland.

3. Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea in the pregnant woman?

• A. Progesterone
• B. Estrogen
• C. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
• D. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Progesterone is the hormone responsible for amenorrhea in pregnant women. Progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining for implantation and supporting early pregnancy. High levels of progesterone during pregnancy suppress the normal menstrual cycle, leading to amenorrhea. Estrogen, FSH, and hCG do not directly cause amenorrhea in pregnant women. Estrogen is involved in the development of female secondary sexual characteristics, FSH is involved in the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, and hCG is produced by the placenta to support the production of progesterone during pregnancy.

4. Which statement best describes electrolytes in intracellular and extracellular fluid?

• A. There is a greater concentration of sodium in extracellular fluid and potassium in intracellular fluid
• B. There is an equal concentration of sodium and potassium in extracellular fluid
• C. There is a greater concentration of potassium in extracellular fluid and sodium in intracellular fluid
• D. There is an equal concentration of sodium and potassium between intracellular and extracellular fluid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Electrolytes are distributed unequally between intracellular and extracellular fluids. Sodium concentration is higher in extracellular fluid, while potassium concentration is higher in intracellular fluid. Therefore, the correct answer is 'There is a greater concentration of sodium in extracellular fluid and potassium in intracellular fluid.' Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the typical distribution of sodium and potassium between intracellular and extracellular fluid.

5. A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?

• A. increased platelet count
• B. increased fibrinogen
• C. decreased fibrin split products
• D. decreased bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Effective Heparin therapy should halt the process of intravascular coagulation, leading to increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Therefore, an increased fibrinogen level indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy. While increased platelet count and decreased bleeding are positive outcomes, the specific indicator for Heparin therapy response is the increase in fibrinogen level. Decreased fibrin split products would also be a positive response, but an increase in fibrinogen directly reflects the impact of Heparin therapy.

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