Nursing Elites

1. Nurses should understand the chain of infection because it refers to:

• A. the linkages involved in disease transmission.
• B. the sequence required for transmission of disease.
• C. the clustering of bacteria in a specific pattern.
• D. increasing virulence patterns among microorganisms.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The chain of infection refers to the sequence required for the transmission of disease, involving steps like the pathogen's presence, movement from a reservoir, and entry into a susceptible host. Understanding this sequence helps healthcare professionals, including nurses, in implementing effective infection control measures. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the concept of the chain of infection. Choice A is too broad and does not specifically address the sequential nature of disease transmission. Choice C focuses on bacterial clustering rather than the transmission process. Choice D mentions virulence patterns, which are not the primary focus of the chain of infection concept.

2. A mother of a newborn notices a nurse placing liquid in her baby's eyes. Which of the following is an inaccurate statement about the need for eyedrops following birth?

• A. Eyedrops following birth help reduce the risk of eye infection.
• B. Eyedrops are required by law.
• C. Eyedrops will keep the eye moist.
• D. Eyedrops are required by law every 6 hours following birth.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Eyedrops are required by law every 6 hours following birth.' This statement is inaccurate because while laws do require the placement of eyedrops, physicians indicate a specific timeframe for their administration. Choice A is correct because eyedrops following birth do help reduce the risk of eye infection by preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Choice B is incorrect as it implies that eyedrops are mandated solely by law, without considering medical reasons. Choice C is accurate as eyedrops do help keep the eye moist, preventing dryness and discomfort.

3. Teaching the client with gonorrhea how to prevent reinfection and further spread is an example of

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. primary health care prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. This type of prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease by early detection and treatment. In the case of gonorrhea, teaching the client how to prevent reinfection and further spread falls under secondary prevention because it aims to reduce the prevalence and morbidity of the disease. Choice A (primary prevention) involves measures to prevent the disease from occurring in the first place, such as vaccination. Choice C (tertiary prevention) focuses on managing the long-term consequences of a disease to prevent complications. Choice D (primary health care prevention) is not a recognized term in prevention strategies.

4. The client has jaundice, elevated liver enzymes, and an elevated serum bilirubin. What color urine does the nurse expect to find?

• A. Pink-tinged
• B. Straw-colored
• C. Clear
• D. Dark amber

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is dark amber. In jaundice, the elevated bilirubin levels are excreted in the urine, giving it a dark amber color. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in jaundice, the urine typically appears dark amber due to the presence of elevated bilirubin, not pink-tinged, straw-colored, or clear.

5. The nurse is checking laboratory values on a patient who has crackling rales in the lower lobes, 2+ pitting edema, and dyspnea with minimal exertion. Which of the following laboratory values does the nurse expect to be abnormal?

• A. Potassium.
• B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP).
• C. C-reactive protein (CRP).
• D. Platelets.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest heart failure. BNP is a neurohormone released from the ventricles due to increased pressure and stretch, as seen in heart failure. A BNP level greater than 51 pg/mL is often associated with mild heart failure, with higher levels indicating more severe heart failure. Potassium levels are not typically affected by heart failure. CRP is an inflammation indicator used to predict coronary artery disease risk, not directly related to heart failure in this case. The client's symptoms do not suggest bleeding or clotting abnormalities associated with platelet count issues, making platelets an unlikely abnormal value.

Similar Questions