Nursing Elites

1. What are major competencies for the nurse giving end-of-life care?

• A. demonstrating respect and compassion, and applying knowledge and skills in the care of the family and the client.
• B. assessing and intervening to support total management of the family and client.
• C. setting goals, expectations, and dynamic changes to care for the client.
• D. keeping all sad news away from the family and client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Major competencies for nurses providing end-of-life care involve a combination of skills and qualities. Demonstrating respect and compassion towards the family and the client is essential in end-of-life care. Additionally, applying knowledge and skills in caring for both the family and the client is crucial to ensure comprehensive and compassionate care. Option A is the correct choice as it accurately reflects these key competencies. Option B, which focuses on assessing and intervening for total management, is important but does not fully address the holistic approach necessary for end-of-life care. Option C, about setting goals and expectations, is relevant but not as critical as the core competencies mentioned in option A. Option D is incorrect as withholding sad news goes against the principles of honesty and transparency in end-of-life care.

2. Following the change of shift report, when can or should the nurse's plan be altered or modified during the shift?

• A. halfway through the shift
• B. at the end of the shift before the nurse reports off
• C. when needs change
• D. after the top-priority tasks have been completed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'when needs change.' It is crucial for the nurse to remain adaptable and adjust the plan promptly when the patient's needs or condition change. Choice A, 'halfway through the shift,' may not align with the timing of when needs actually change, making it less optimal for plan modifications. Choice B, 'at the end of the shift before the nurse reports off,' is too late to address evolving needs effectively. Choice D, 'after the top-priority tasks have been completed,' limits the nurse's ability to respond promptly to changing priorities, as needs may shift before all top-priority tasks are finished.

3. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

• A. refusal to walk
• B. not pulling to a standing position
• C. negative Trendelenburg sign
• D. negative Ortolani sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.

4. A community health nurse is providing information to a group of older clients about measures to decrease the risk of contracting influenza during peak flu season. The nurse should provide which information?

• A. Clients must stay at home and ask a neighbor or family member to run their errands.
• B. It is best to do grocery shopping and other errands early in the morning when crowds are smaller.
• C. Clients should wash their hands frequently and keep hands away from the face, especially during peak flu season.
• D. Drinking eight 8-oz glasses of fluid each day will reduce the risk of contracting influenza.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During peak influenza season, older clients should take measures to reduce the risk of contracting the flu. The most effective preventive measure is frequent hand hygiene and refraining from touching the face, as this reduces the transmission of the flu virus. While it is advisable to avoid crowds, the direct action of hand hygiene is more impactful. Doing errands early in the morning when crowds are smaller is a good suggestion to reduce exposure but does not address the direct transmission through hands. Drinking enough fluid daily is important for overall health but does not directly reduce the risk of contracting influenza.

5. The LPN is admitting a client to the unit, and the client has rapidly blinking eyes, a stuck-out tongue, and a distorted posture. Which of these medications is the client most likely taking?

• A. Clozapine
• B. Fluoxetine
• C. Ondansetron
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Haloperidol. Haloperidol is a first-generation antipsychotic that blocks dopamine receptors and is most likely to cause extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), such as tardive dyskinesia. Symptoms of tardive dyskinesia include rapid blinking, mouth movements, sticking out the tongue, rapid body movements, and a distorted posture. Haloperidol is associated with a higher risk of EPS compared to other antipsychotic medications like Clozapine. Clozapine is known for having a lower risk of causing EPS. Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used for depression and anxiety, not typically associated with these movement disorder symptoms. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to prevent nausea and vomiting, not linked to these extrapyramidal symptoms.

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