Nursing Elites

1. What are major competencies for the nurse giving end-of-life care?

• A. demonstrating respect and compassion, and applying knowledge and skills in the care of the family and the client.
• B. assessing and intervening to support total management of the family and client.
• C. setting goals, expectations, and dynamic changes to care for the client.
• D. keeping all sad news away from the family and client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Major competencies for nurses providing end-of-life care involve a combination of skills and qualities. Demonstrating respect and compassion towards the family and the client is essential in end-of-life care. Additionally, applying knowledge and skills in caring for both the family and the client is crucial to ensure comprehensive and compassionate care. Option A is the correct choice as it accurately reflects these key competencies. Option B, which focuses on assessing and intervening for total management, is important but does not fully address the holistic approach necessary for end-of-life care. Option C, about setting goals and expectations, is relevant but not as critical as the core competencies mentioned in option A. Option D is incorrect as withholding sad news goes against the principles of honesty and transparency in end-of-life care.

2. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?

• A. nausea and vomiting
• B. itching
• C. urinary retention
• D. somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.

3. A nurse is preparing to assess the function of a client's spinal accessory nerve. Which action does the nurse ask the client to take to aid assessment of this nerve?

• A. Smiling
• B. Clenching the teeth
• C. Shrugging the shoulders against the nurse's resistance
• D. Identifying by taste a substance placed on the back of the tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To assess cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the examiner checks the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size. Equal strength is assessed by asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance applied to the side of the chin and by asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. These movements should feel equally strong on the two sides. The client is asked to smile as a test of the function of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve). The client's ability to clench the teeth is used to assess the motor function of cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve). The client's taste perception is used to assess the sensory function of cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). Therefore, the correct action to assess the spinal accessory nerve is to ask the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance. The other options are used to assess different cranial nerves, making them incorrect choices.

4. A nurse is preparing to assess a client for the presence of the Tinel sign. Which action does the nurse take to elicit this sign?

• A. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint
• B. Percussing at the location of the median nerve
• C. Checking for repetitive movements in the joints
• D. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Tinel sign is elicited by percussing at the location of the median nerve at the wrist. In carpal tunnel syndrome, this test can produce burning and tingling along the nerve's distribution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Testing for the strength of each muscle joint and checking for repetitive movements in the joints involve different assessments unrelated to the Tinel sign. Asking the client to flex the wrist 90 degrees while holding the hands back to back is associated with the Phalen test, which is another evaluation for carpal tunnel syndrome.

5. The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
• B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
• C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part water and one part concentrate.
• D. When using powdered formula, mix two parts water and one part powder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is essential for parents to be cautious when warming bottles in a microwave oven to prevent superheating of the milk. Choosing the defrost setting and checking the formula temperature before giving it to the baby helps avoid burns. Discarding partially used bottles after 24 hours when refrigerating formula is crucial as it reduces the risk of harmful bacterial growth. Mixing formula concentrate with water in a 1:1 ratio of one part concentrate to one part water ensures proper dilution of the formula. On the other hand, powdered formula should be mixed following the package instructions, typically using two parts water to one part powder. This accurate mixing ratio provides the necessary balance of nutrients for the baby. Adding fresh formula to partially used bottles can introduce pathogens that may harm the infant, underscoring the importance of discarding partially used bottles and preparing formula correctly. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the safe and proper ways to feed a newborn effectively.

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