Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health care record of a client who has just undergone an examination of the internal genitalia. Which documented finding indicates an abnormality?

• A. The cervix is pink.
• B. The cervix is midline.
• C. The cervix is about 1 inch in diameter.
• D. Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.' Normally, the cervix is pink, midline, and about 1 inch in diameter. Depending on the day of the menstrual cycle, secretions may vary. However, they should always be odorless and nonirritating. Secretions with a foul odor are indicative of an infection, making this finding abnormal. Choices A, B, and C describe normal cervix characteristics, so they do not indicate an abnormality in this scenario.

2. A male client is learning about testicular self-examination (TSE) from a nurse. Which statement should the nurse make to the client?

• A. 'A good time to examine the testicles is during or after you take a shower.'
• B. 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.'
• C. 'The testicle is round and smooth. It feels firm and without lumps.'
• D. 'Perform a testicular exam monthly to detect early signs of testicular cancer.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement for the nurse to make to the client is 'If you notice an enlarged testicle or a lump, you need to notify the physician.' During a shower or bath is the best time to examine the testes because warm temperatures make the testes hang lower in the scrotum. The testes should feel round and smooth, without lumps. Self-examination should be performed monthly to detect any abnormalities early. The physician needs to be notified immediately if any abnormal findings are noticed. Choice A is incorrect because the best time for TSE is during or after a warm shower or bath, not just before. Choice C is incorrect as the testicle should feel round, smooth, and without lumps, not egg-shaped and lumpy. Choice D is incorrect as monthly self-examinations are recommended, not every 2 months.

3. All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:

• A. hot flashes
• B. loss of reproductive ability
• C. headaches
• D. heart palpitations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.

4. A nurse is assisting with developing a plan of care for an older client to help maintain an adequate sleep pattern. Which action should the nurse suggest be included in the plan?

• A. Encouraging bedtime reading or listening to music
• B. Encouraging at least one daytime nap
• C. Discouraging the use of a nightlight at bedtime
• D. Discouraging social interaction, particularly at bedtime

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To help maintain an adequate sleep pattern in older clients, it is essential to include activities that promote relaxation and a conducive sleep environment. Encouraging bedtime reading or listening to music can help the client unwind and prepare for sleep. Daytime naps should be discouraged to ensure a better nighttime sleep. Social interaction, especially positive interactions, can be beneficial and should not be discouraged. The use of a nightlight can create a safe and comfortable environment for the client, so it should not be discouraged unless specifically contraindicated.

5. A nurse is preparing to auscultate a fetal heart rate (FHR). The nurse performs the Leopold maneuvers to determine the position of the fetus and then places the fetoscope over which part of the fetus?

• A. Back of the fetus
• B. Carotid artery in the neck of the fetus
• C. Brachial area of one extremity of the fetus
• D. Chest of the fetus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse would use the Leopold maneuvers to identify the position of the fetus and determine the location of the fetal back. The fetal heart rate (FHR) is most easily heard through the fetal back because it usually lies closest to the surface of the maternal abdomen. Auscultation of the FHR over the chest, carotid artery, or brachial area is not possible due to the fetal position within the maternal abdomen. Placing the fetoscope over the carotid artery or brachial area would not yield the fetal heart rate, and the chest area is not typically used for auscultating the FHR.

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