a nurse is reviewing the health care record of a client who has just undergone an examination of the internal genitalia which documented finding indic
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NCLEX-PN

NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health care record of a client who has just undergone an examination of the internal genitalia. Which documented finding indicates an abnormality?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.' Normally, the cervix is pink, midline, and about 1 inch in diameter. Depending on the day of the menstrual cycle, secretions may vary. However, they should always be odorless and nonirritating. Secretions with a foul odor are indicative of an infection, making this finding abnormal. Choices A, B, and C describe normal cervix characteristics, so they do not indicate an abnormality in this scenario.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

3. Which of the following physical findings indicates that an 11-12-month-old child is at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'not pulling to a standing position.' An 11-12-month-old child not pulling to a standing position may be at risk for developmental dysplasia of the hip. By this age, children typically pull to a standing position, and failure to do so should raise concerns. Refusal to walk is a broader observation and not specific to hip dysplasia. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius muscle, not hip dysplasia. The Ortolani sign is used to detect congenital subluxation or dislocation of the hip, which is different from developmental dysplasia of the hip.

4. In a community pediatric health clinic, which developmental task should you apply into your practice?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When working in a community pediatric health clinic, applying the principles of initiative is crucial when caring for preschool children. According to Erik Erikson's psychosocial theory, the developmental task for preschool children is initiative. Preschool children are in the stage where they are eager to initiate activities and carry out tasks. This stage is characterized by a balance between initiative and guilt. By encouraging children to explore and take the initiative in a supportive environment, healthcare providers can foster their sense of independence and creativity. The other choices are incorrect because: - Sensorimotor thought is a term associated with Jean Piaget's cognitive development theory, not Erikson's psychosocial theory. - Intimacy is a developmental task associated with young adults, not adolescents, in Erikson's theory. - Concrete operations is a term linked to Piaget's theory of cognitive development and is not a developmental task according to Erikson's psychosocial theory.

5. A nurse assisting with data collection is testing the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII). Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To test the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve (cranial nerve VIII), the nurse should have the client close their eyes and indicate when a ticking watch is heard as the nurse moves the watch closer to the client's ear. This action assesses the client's ability to perceive auditory stimuli, as the cochlear portion of the acoustic nerve is responsible for hearing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Asking the client to raise their eyebrows to check for symmetry is a method to test the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII). Asking the client to clench their teeth and palpating the masseter muscles tests the motor component of the trigeminal nerve. Having the client identify light and sharp touch on both sides of the face is a way to test the sensory component of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).

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