NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Questions Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health care record of a client who has just undergone an examination of the internal genitalia. Which documented finding indicates an abnormality?
- A. The cervix is pink.
- B. The cervix is midline.
- C. The cervix is about 1 inch in diameter.
- D. Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.' Normally, the cervix is pink, midline, and about 1 inch in diameter. Depending on the day of the menstrual cycle, secretions may vary. However, they should always be odorless and nonirritating. Secretions with a foul odor are indicative of an infection, making this finding abnormal. Choices A, B, and C describe normal cervix characteristics, so they do not indicate an abnormality in this scenario.
2. During a genital examination of a male client, a nurse notices wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. What should the nurse do based on this finding?
- A. Documents the normal finding
- B. Checks for penile discharge, as this indicates infection
- C. Palpates for a mass in the scrotum, as wrinkling suggests the presence of one
- D. Obtains additional subjective data from the client, focusing on the scrotal abnormality
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The penile skin typically appears wrinkled and hairless, without lesions, during a normal examination. Also, the scrotal skin naturally has a wrinkled appearance known as rugae. It is common for the left half of the scrotum to be positioned lower than the right, indicating normal asymmetry. Given these normal variations, the nurse should document the finding of wrinkled skin on the penis and scrotum. Checking for penile discharge or palpating for a mass in the scrotum is not indicated based on the presence of wrinkled skin, as this is a normal finding. Obtaining additional subjective data focusing on a scrotal abnormality is unnecessary since the wrinkled appearance is typical.
3. A sexually active married couple, discussing birth control methods with the nurse, expresses the need for a method that is convenient. Because the couple has told the nurse that family-planning goals have been met, which method of birth control does the nurse suggest?
- A. Diaphragm
- B. Sterilization
- C. Male condom
- D. Spermicide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, since the couple has indicated that their family-planning goals have been met, a permanent method of contraception like sterilization would be most suitable. Sterilization offers long-term effectiveness and convenience once the decision to stop having children is made. Options like the diaphragm, male condom, or spermicide are more suitable for temporary contraception or when the family-planning goals have not yet been achieved. Therefore, the correct answer is sterilization, as it aligns with the couple's need for a convenient and permanent birth control method.
4. A nurse is reviewing the findings of a physical examination documented in a client's record. Which piece of information does the nurse recognize as objective data?
- A. The client is allergic to strawberries
- B. The last menstrual period was 30 days ago
- C. The client takes acetaminophen (Tylenol) for headaches
- D. A 1-2-inch scar is present on the lower right portion of the abdomen
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Objective data in a physical examination are findings that the healthcare provider observes or measures directly. In this case, a 1 � 2-inch scar present on the lower right portion of the abdomen is a physical observation. Subjective data are based on what the client reports, such as allergies (Choice A), the date of the last menstrual period (Choice B), and self-reported medication use for headaches (Choice C). While these pieces of information are important for assessing the client's health, they are considered subjective data because they rely on the client's self-report rather than direct observation by the healthcare provider.
5. A client with massive chest and head injuries is admitted to the ICU from the Emergency Department. All of the following are true except:
- A. The physician in charge of the case is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur.
- B. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation for the donor if the client is unable to do so.
- C. The organ procurement organization makes the decision regarding which organs to harvest.
- D. The donor (or legally responsible party for the donor), the physician, and the organ-procurement organization are all involved in the process.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: While the physician plays a crucial role in the process of organ donation, they are not the sole decision-maker. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation if the client is unable to do so. Additionally, the organ procurement organization is responsible for determining which organs are suitable for donation. Therefore, the statement that the physician in charge is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur is incorrect. The correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are true statements as they highlight the involvement of the legally responsible party, the organ procurement organization, and the donor/legally responsible party, physician, and organ-procurement organization in the organ donation process respectively.
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