Nursing Elites

1. A client, age 28, is 8 1/2 months pregnant. She is most likely to display which normal skin-color variation?

• A. vitiligo
• B. erythema
• C. cyanosis
• D. chloasma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is described as tan-to-brown patches on the face. This hyperpigmentation results from hormonal changes during pregnancy. Vitiligo is characterized by depigmented patches, erythema is redness of the skin due to increased blood flow, and cyanosis is a bluish discoloration due to poor circulation or lack of oxygen, none of which are typical skin-color variations during pregnancy. Therefore, in a pregnant client, the most likely normal skin-color variation to be displayed is chloasma.

2. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

• A. Near vision
• B. Color vision
• C. Distant vision
• D. Peripheral vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

3. How often should a 5-year-old child undergo a dental examination?

• A. Every 6 months
• B. Whenever a new primary tooth erupts
• C. Once a year
• D. Every 3 months

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a 5-year-old child, dental examinations should be conducted every 6 months. This frequency allows for early detection of dental issues and promotes good oral health. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting for a new primary tooth to erupt, having an examination once a year, or every 3 months are not the recommended intervals for dental check-ups in this age group. It is essential to adhere to the standard guideline of every 6 months to ensure regular monitoring and preventive care for the child's dental health.

4. A client with Kawasaki disease has bilateral congestion of the conjunctivae, dry cracked lips, a strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet followed by desquamation of fingers and toes. Which of the following nursing measures is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image?

• A. administering immune globulin intravenously
• B. assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours
• C. explaining progression of the disease to the client and their family
• D. assessing heart sounds and rhythm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Educating the client and their family about the progression of Kawasaki disease is crucial for promoting a positive body image. By explaining when symptoms are expected to improve and resolve, the client and family can better understand that there will be no permanent disruption in physical appearance that could negatively impact body image. Administering immune globulin intravenously is a treatment for Kawasaki disease but does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours is important for monitoring the disease but does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing heart sounds and rhythm is essential for evaluating cardiac effects of Kawasaki disease but is not the most direct measure for promoting a positive body image.

5. A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

• A. is pregnant.
• B. is immunocompromised.
• C. is allergic to neomycin.
• D. has a cold.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold without a fever since it does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus that may cause birth defects and/or disease. Being allergic to neomycin is also a contraindication as per the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines. Individuals who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine. Therefore, option D 'has a cold' is the correct choice, as the presence of a simple cold does not prevent the client from receiving the MMR vaccine.

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