Nursing Elites

1. While assisting with data collection of an adult client, a nurse asks the client to identify various odors. In this technique, which cranial nerve is the nurse assessing?

• A. Optic
• B. Abducens
• C. Olfactory
• D. Hypoglossal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Olfactory.' The olfactory nerve is responsible for the sense of smell. Assessing this nerve involves testing the client's ability to identify various odors. Loss of smell, head trauma, abnormal mental status, and suspected intracranial lesions are conditions where testing the olfactory nerve is essential. The optic nerve is evaluated for visual acuity and visual fields. The abducens nerve is usually assessed alongside the oculomotor and trochlear nerves, focusing on pupil size, regularity, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements. The hypoglossal nerve is examined by inspecting the tongue, not by assessing the sense of smell.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the health care record of a client who has just undergone an examination of the internal genitalia. Which documented finding indicates an abnormality?

• A. The cervix is pink.
• B. The cervix is midline.
• C. The cervix is about 1 inch in diameter.
• D. Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Clear secretions with a foul odor are noted on the cervix.' Normally, the cervix is pink, midline, and about 1 inch in diameter. Depending on the day of the menstrual cycle, secretions may vary. However, they should always be odorless and nonirritating. Secretions with a foul odor are indicative of an infection, making this finding abnormal. Choices A, B, and C describe normal cervix characteristics, so they do not indicate an abnormality in this scenario.

3. Which of the following is an example of an extended care facility?

• A. Home health agency
• B. Suicide prevention center
• C. State-owned psychiatric hospital
• D. Nursing facility

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An extended care facility typically provides long-term care for individuals who require continuous assistance with activities of daily living. A nursing facility fits this description as it offers skilled nursing care and assistance with daily activities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a home health agency provides care in the patient's home, a suicide prevention center focuses on mental health crisis intervention, and a state-owned psychiatric hospital offers mental health treatment, none of which are synonymous with extended care facilities.

4. A nurse is providing information to a group of pregnant clients and their partners about the psychosocial development of an infant. Using Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the nurse tells the group that infants have which developmental need?

• A. Must have needs ignored for short periods to develop a healthy personality
• B. Need to rely on the fact that their needs will be met
• C. Need to experience frustration, so it is best to allow an infant to cry for a while before meeting his or her needs
• D. Need to tolerate a great deal of frustration and discomfort to develop a healthy personality

Correct answer: B

Rationale: According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, infants struggle to establish a sense of basic trust rather than a sense of basic mistrust in their world, their caregivers, and themselves. If provided with consistent satisfying experiences that are delivered in a timely manner, infants come to rely on the fact that their needs are met and that, in turn, they will be able to tolerate some degree of frustration and discomfort until those needs are met. This sense of confidence is an early form of trust and provides the foundation for a healthy personality. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with Erikson's theory that emphasizes the importance of infants trusting that their needs will be met.

5. A client can receive the Mumps, Measles, Rubella (MMR) vaccine if he or she:

• A. is pregnant.
• B. is immunocompromised.
• C. is allergic to neomycin.
• D. has a cold.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client can receive the MMR vaccine if he or she has a cold without a fever since it does not preclude vaccination. Pregnant women and immunocompromised individuals cannot receive the MMR vaccine because the rubella component is a live virus that may cause birth defects and/or disease. Being allergic to neomycin is also a contraindication as per the American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines. Individuals who have experienced anaphylactic reactions to neomycin should not receive the measles vaccine. Therefore, option D 'has a cold' is the correct choice, as the presence of a simple cold does not prevent the client from receiving the MMR vaccine.

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