NCLEX-PN
2024 PN NCLEX Questions
1. A nurse is determining the fetal heart rate (FHR) and places the fetoscope on the mother's abdomen to count the FHR. The nurse simultaneously palpates the mother's radial pulse and notes that it is synchronized with the sounds heard through the fetoscope. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Count the FHR for 60 seconds, ensuring that it is synchronized consistently with the mother's radial pulse.
- B. Move the fetoscope to another area on the mother's abdomen to locate the fetal heart.
- C. Ask the mother to lie still while both the FHR and the radial pulse rate are counted.
- D. Count the FHR for 30 seconds and then count the radial pulse rate of the mother for 30 seconds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When auscultating the fetal heart rate, the nurse would place the fetoscope on the maternal abdomen, over the fetal back. The nurse would then palpate the mother's radial pulse. If her pulse is synchronized with the sounds from the fetoscope, the nurse would move the fetoscope to another area on the mother's abdomen to locate the FHR. The nurse needs to be sure that the FHR is what is actually being heard. Other sounds that may be heard are the funic sound (blood flowing through the umbilical cord) and the uterine sound (blood flowing through the uterine vessels). The funic sound is synchronized with the FHR; the uterine sound is synchronized with the mother's pulse. Therefore, moving the fetoscope to a different area will help in accurately locating and counting the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because counting for 60 seconds without changing the position may not address the issue of accurately locating the FHR. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the need to reposition the fetoscope to locate the fetal heart. Choice D is incorrect because counting the FHR and the radial pulse rate separately may not help in differentiating the two sounds.
2. A nurse in the newborn nursery, assisting with data collection for a newborn, prepares to measure the chest circumference. The nurse places the tape measure around the infant at which location?
- A. In the axillary area
- B. At the level of the nipples
- C. Two inches below the nipples
- D. At the level of the umbilicus
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The chest circumference of the infant is measured at the level of the nipples. It is usually 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head circumference. The average chest circumference is 30.5 to 33 cm (12-13 inches). When there is molding of the head, the head and chest measurements may be equal at birth. Placing the tape measure at the level of the nipples ensures accuracy and consistency in newborn assessment. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as the chest circumference is specifically measured at the level of the nipples to obtain precise measurements.
3. A nurse in the emergency department is assisting with data collection of a client. The presence of which condition would cause the nurse to avoid testing range of motion (ROM) of the cervical spine?
- A. Headache
- B. Neck trauma
- C. Sinus infection
- D. Muscle spasms
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A nurse assisting with data collection for a client should avoid testing the range of motion (ROM) of the cervical spine if the client has neck trauma. Neck trauma may have resulted in a cervical fracture, and further movement of the neck could lead to spinal cord injury. Testing ROM does not need to be avoided for headache, sinus infection, or muscle spasms as these conditions do not pose the same risk of exacerbating a potential cervical injury. Therefore, the correct answer is neck trauma.
4. When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, which of the following steps may be appropriate when communicating with the patient?
- A. Divide the verbal communication into smaller sections and address one at a time.
- B. Communicate only with written information.
- C. Ask multiple questions in a row quickly to make sure the patient is remaining engaged.
- D. Frequently communicate without assistive devices to help the patient improve their hearing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When caring for a patient who is hard-of-hearing, it is important to divide verbal communication into smaller sections and address them one at a time. This approach helps the patient follow along more easily and understand the information being conveyed. While using written information can also be beneficial, solely relying on written communication may not always be practical or feasible for effective interaction. Asking multiple questions quickly can overwhelm the patient and hinder their ability to process each question adequately. It is essential to give the patient sufficient time to comprehend and respond. Additionally, frequently communicating without assistive devices is not recommended. Using assistive devices can significantly enhance the patient's ability to hear and understand, promoting better communication and patient care.
5. A client asks the nurse what risk factors increase the chances of getting skin cancer. The risk factors include all except:
- A. light or fair complexion.
- B. exposure to sun for extended periods of time.
- C. certain diet and foods.
- D. history of bad sunburns.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'certain diet and foods.' Risk factors that increase the chances of getting skin cancer include having a light or fair complexion, a history of bad sunburns, personal or family history of skin cancer, outdoor activities with sun exposure, exposure to X-rays or radiation, exposure to certain chemicals, repeated trauma or injury resulting in scars, age over 50, male gender, and living in specific geographic locations. These factors can contribute to the development of skin cancer. Avoiding exposure to the sun, using protective clothing and sunscreen, and regular skin inspections are key preventive measures. Choice C, 'certain diet and foods,' is incorrect as diet is not a primary risk factor for skin cancer. Options A, B, and D are all valid risk factors associated with an increased risk of developing skin cancer.
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