Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is determining the fetal heart rate (FHR) and places the fetoscope on the mother's abdomen to count the FHR. The nurse simultaneously palpates the mother's radial pulse and notes that it is synchronized with the sounds heard through the fetoscope. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Count the FHR for 60 seconds, ensuring that it is synchronized consistently with the mother's radial pulse.
• B. Move the fetoscope to another area on the mother's abdomen to locate the fetal heart.
• C. Ask the mother to lie still while both the FHR and the radial pulse rate are counted.
• D. Count the FHR for 30 seconds and then count the radial pulse rate of the mother for 30 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When auscultating the fetal heart rate, the nurse would place the fetoscope on the maternal abdomen, over the fetal back. The nurse would then palpate the mother's radial pulse. If her pulse is synchronized with the sounds from the fetoscope, the nurse would move the fetoscope to another area on the mother's abdomen to locate the FHR. The nurse needs to be sure that the FHR is what is actually being heard. Other sounds that may be heard are the funic sound (blood flowing through the umbilical cord) and the uterine sound (blood flowing through the uterine vessels). The funic sound is synchronized with the FHR; the uterine sound is synchronized with the mother's pulse. Therefore, moving the fetoscope to a different area will help in accurately locating and counting the fetal heart rate. Choice A is incorrect because counting for 60 seconds without changing the position may not address the issue of accurately locating the FHR. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the need to reposition the fetoscope to locate the fetal heart. Choice D is incorrect because counting the FHR and the radial pulse rate separately may not help in differentiating the two sounds.

2. A nurse is reading the report from the registered nurse for an initial home visit to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The client was recently discharged from the hospital. Which type of database does the nurse read that contains this information from the client?

• A. Episodic
• B. Follow-up
• C. Emergency
• D. Complete

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Complete.' A complete database includes a full health history and physical examination, providing a comprehensive overview of the client's current and past health status. This type of database establishes a baseline for future assessments, making it essential for the nurse's initial home visit to understand the client's health needs thoroughly post-hospital discharge. It is typically gathered in primary care settings like clinics, private practices, college health services, women's health care agencies, visiting nurse agencies, or community health agencies. An episodic database focuses on a specific short-term issue or body system, which is not comprehensive enough for the initial home visit after hospital discharge. A follow-up database is used to monitor a known problem at regular intervals, not suitable for an initial assessment. An emergency database is swiftly collected during urgent situations, often while lifesaving measures are being carried out, and is not relevant for a post-hospital discharge home visit.

3. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

4. During a throat assessment, a healthcare provider asks a client to stick out their tongue and notices it protrudes in the midline. Which cranial nerve is being tested?

• A. Cranial nerve X
• B. Cranial nerve V
• C. Cranial nerve IX
• D. Cranial nerve XII

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). When testing cranial nerve XII, the healthcare provider inspects the symmetry and movement of the tongue. The tongue should protrude in the midline when the client sticks it out. Cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve) are tested by depressing the tongue with a blade to observe pharyngeal movement and gag reflex. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) is responsible for testing the muscles of mastication, not tongue protrusion.

5. While a client is on total parenteral nutrition, which of the following values should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. calcium
• B. magnesium
• C. glucose
• D. cholesterol

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glucose should be monitored closely when a client is on total parenteral nutrition due to the high glucose concentration in the solutions. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium and magnesium are usually monitored to assess electrolyte imbalances, while cholesterol levels are not directly impacted by total parenteral nutrition. Therefore, choices A, B, and D are not the primary values that need close monitoring during total parenteral nutrition.

Similar Questions