Nursing Elites

1. Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?

• A. rickets
• B. marasmus
• C. kwashiorkor
• D. scurvy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Scurvy is indeed associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C. Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy, which is characterized by weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because rickets is caused by vitamin D deficiency, marasmus is due to severe malnutrition leading to wasting, and kwashiorkor is a form of severe protein-energy malnutrition.

2. A nurse is assisting with data collection on an older client who will be seen by a physician in a health care clinic. When the nurse asks the client about sexual and reproductive function, the client reports concern about sexual dysfunction. What should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Document the client's concern in the medical record.
• B. Report the client's concern to the health care provider.
• C. Tell the client that sexual dysfunction is not a normal age-related change.
• D. Ask the client about medications he is taking.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sexual dysfunction is not a normal process of aging. The prevalence of chronic illness and medication use is higher among older adults than in the younger population. Illnesses and medications can interfere with the normal sexual function of older men and women. It is crucial to assess the medications the client is taking as they could be contributing to the reported sexual dysfunction. While documenting the concern and informing the healthcare provider are important steps, the immediate priority is to gather information on the medications that could be impacting the client's sexual function. Therefore, the nurse's next action should be to ask the client about the medications he is taking.

3. When determining a fetal heart rate (FHR) and noting accelerations from the baseline rate when the fetus is moving, a nurse interprets this finding as:

• A. A reassuring sign
• B. An indication of the need to contact the physician
• C. An indication of fetal distress
• D. A nonreassuring sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse notes accelerations from the baseline rate of the fetal heart rate, particularly when they occur with fetal movement, it is considered a reassuring sign. This indicates a healthy response to fetal activity. Reassuring signs in FHR monitoring include an average rate between 120 and 160 beats/min at term, a regular rhythm with slight fluctuations, accelerations from the baseline rate (often associated with fetal movement), and the absence of decreases from the baseline rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because accelerations in FHR with fetal movement are not indicative of the need to contact the physician, fetal distress, or a nonreassuring sign. These signs would typically be associated with other abnormal FHR patterns that would warrant further assessment and intervention.

4. A healthcare professional is using an otoscope to inspect the ears of an adult client. Which action does the professional take before inserting the otoscope?

• A. Pulling the pinna up and back
• B. Pulling the pinna down and forward
• C. Tipping the client's head down and toward the examiner
• D. Tipping the client's head down and away from the examiner

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an adult client, the healthcare professional should pull the pinna up and back before inserting the otoscope. This action helps straighten the S shape of the ear canal, making it easier to insert the otoscope directly and comfortably. Tipping the client's head down and toward or away from the examiner is not the correct action when using an otoscope in an adult. Pulling the pinna down and forward is typically done when examining an infant or a child younger than 3 years old to straighten their ear canal for better visualization.

5. A client is taught about healthy dietary measures and the MyPlate food plan. How many of his grains should be whole grains according to the MyPlate food plan?

• A. One-quarter
• B. One-third
• C. One-half
• D. Two-thirds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'One-half.' According to the MyPlate food plan, at least half of the grains consumed daily should be whole grains. This ensures a well-balanced and healthy diet. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the dietary recommendation provided by the MyPlate food plan. One-quarter, one-third, and two-thirds do not represent the appropriate proportion of whole grains as advised by the plan, which emphasizes the importance of including a significant portion of whole grains in one's diet.

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