Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is auscultating for vesicular breath sounds in a client. Of which quality would the nurse expect these normal breath sounds to be?

• A. Harsh
• B. Hollow
• C. Tubular
• D. Rustling

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Rustling.' Vesicular breath sounds are described as rustling and resemble the sound of wind blowing through trees. Harsh, hollow, and tubular sounds are associated with bronchial (tracheal) breath sounds, not vesicular breath sounds. Harsh sounds are high-pitched, hollow sounds are reverberating, and tubular sounds are like blowing air into a tube. Therefore, options A, B, and C are incorrect descriptions of vesicular breath sounds and are more characteristic of bronchial breath sounds.

2. A client describes her cervical mucus as clear, thin, and elastic. Upon examination, the nurse demonstrates that the cervical mucus can be stretched 8-10 cm. The nurse correctly documents the finding as:

• A. increased ferning capacity.
• B. lack of ferning.
• C. spinnbarkheit.
• D. inhospitable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should document the finding as 'spinnbarkheit.' Spinnbarkheit is the term used to describe the clear, thin, and elastic cervical mucus that can be stretched 8-10 cm, indicating ovulation. It helps couples determine the most fertile period for conception. Ferning capacity or crystallization increases as ovulation approaches, but it requires microscopic examination to be confirmed. Lack of ferning cannot be determined without such examination. 'Inhospitable' cervical mucus refers to patterns that prohibit sperm motility, caused by various factors like hormone levels or infection. These conditions cannot be assessed based solely on the description provided in the question.

3. A nurse in the emergency department is assisting with data collection of a client. The presence of which condition would cause the nurse to avoid testing range of motion (ROM) of the cervical spine?

• A. Headache
• B. Neck trauma
• C. Sinus infection
• D. Muscle spasms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nurse assisting with data collection for a client should avoid testing the range of motion (ROM) of the cervical spine if the client has neck trauma. Neck trauma may have resulted in a cervical fracture, and further movement of the neck could lead to spinal cord injury. Testing ROM does not need to be avoided for headache, sinus infection, or muscle spasms as these conditions do not pose the same risk of exacerbating a potential cervical injury. Therefore, the correct answer is neck trauma.

4. A nurse is providing information to a group of pregnant clients and their partners about the psychosocial development of an infant. Using Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, the nurse tells the group that infants have which developmental need?

• A. Must have needs ignored for short periods to develop a healthy personality
• B. Need to rely on the fact that their needs will be met
• C. Need to experience frustration, so it is best to allow an infant to cry for a while before meeting his or her needs
• D. Need to tolerate a great deal of frustration and discomfort to develop a healthy personality

Correct answer: B

Rationale: According to Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, infants struggle to establish a sense of basic trust rather than a sense of basic mistrust in their world, their caregivers, and themselves. If provided with consistent satisfying experiences that are delivered in a timely manner, infants come to rely on the fact that their needs are met and that, in turn, they will be able to tolerate some degree of frustration and discomfort until those needs are met. This sense of confidence is an early form of trust and provides the foundation for a healthy personality. Therefore, options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with Erikson's theory that emphasizes the importance of infants trusting that their needs will be met.

5. A client is pregnant for the sixth time. She tells the nurse that she has had three elective first-trimester abortions and that she has a son who was born at 40 weeks' gestation and a daughter who was born at 36 weeks' gestation. In calculating the gravidity and para (parity), the nurse determines that the client is:

• A. Gravida 2, para 6
• B. Gravida 6, para 2
• C. Gravida 3, para 6
• D. Gravida 2, para 2

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The term gravida refers to the number of pregnancies, of any duration, that a woman has had. Parity (para) refers to the number of pregnancies that have progressed past 20 weeks at delivery. Therefore, this client is gravida 6 (pregnant for the sixth time), para 2 (has a son and a daughter). In this case, the correct answer is Gravida 6, para 2. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the information provided. Pregnancy outcomes are often described using the GTPAL acronym: gravida (G), term births (T), preterm births (P), abortions (A), and live births (L). Applying this to the client's history, the GTPAL would be G = 6, T = 1, P = 1, A = 3, L = 2, which further confirms the correct answer.

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