NCLEX-PN
Best NCLEX Next Gen Prep
1. Which of the following home-care strategies is most likely to negatively impact the body image of a client with Cushing's syndrome?
- A. providing safety measures to prevent falls
- B. taking medications as prescribed
- C. wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome
- D. having regular health assessments
Correct answer: C
Rationale: All of the strategies listed are essential components of home care for a client with Cushing's syndrome. However, wearing a medical ID indicating Cushing's syndrome is the correct answer as it can have a negative impact on body image. This choice may constantly remind the client of their condition, potentially affecting their self-image and confidence. On the contrary, providing safety measures to prevent falls (Choice A) would enhance body image by promoting safety and preventing injuries. Taking medications as prescribed (Choice B) is likely to improve body image by managing symptoms effectively. Having regular health assessments (Choice D) demonstrates good self-care and can positively contribute to body image by showing a commitment to maintaining health.
2. A nurse is trying to motivate a client toward more effective management of a therapeutic regimen. Which of the following actions by the nurse is most likely to be effective in increasing the client's motivation?
- A. determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby
- B. developing a concise discharge plan and reviewing it with the client
- C. teaching the client about the disorder at the client's level of understanding
- D. making a referral to an area agency for client follow-up
Correct answer: C
Rationale: To effectively motivate the client, it is important to educate them about the disorder at their level of understanding. This helps the client comprehend the importance of the therapeutic regimen and empowers them to actively participate in their treatment. Choice A, determining if the client has any family or friends living nearby, may provide social support but is less likely to directly impact the client's motivation compared to educating them about their condition. Developing a concise discharge plan, as in choice B, is crucial for continuity of care but may not directly enhance the client's motivation as effectively as providing education tailored to their level of understanding. Making a referral for follow-up, as in choice D, is important for ongoing care but may not have the same immediate impact on the client's motivation as educating them about their condition.
3. What causes an older female client's hair to turn gray?
- A. ''A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.''
- B. ''The number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases in the normal aging process.''
- C. ''The skin on the scalp becomes thin, causing moisture to escape.''
- D. ''It is caused by hereditary factors.''
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A loss of melanin occurs in the normal aging process.' Graying hair in older adults is primarily due to a decrease in the number of melanocytes responsible for providing pigment and hair color. This reduction in melanin production leads to gray hair. The other choices are incorrect. While it is true that the skin becomes thinner with aging and the number of sweat glands and blood vessels decreases, these changes are not directly related to graying hair. Additionally, hereditary factors can influence when graying starts, but they do not cause the graying of hair itself.
4. All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:
- A. hot flashes
- B. loss of reproductive ability
- C. headaches
- D. heart palpitations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.
5. Which reported symptom(s) would indicate a client with Addison's disease has received too much fludrocortisone (Florinef) replacement?
- A. Oily skin and hair
- B. Weight gain of 6 pounds in one week
- C. Loss of muscle mass in arms and legs
- D. Increased blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fludrocortisone replacement in Addison's disease involves mimicking the action of aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid that causes the retention of sodium and water. Excessive retention of sodium and water can lead to weight gain. Therefore, a sudden increase in weight, especially a significant amount like 6 pounds in one week, can indicate an overdose of fludrocortisone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because oily skin and hair, loss of muscle mass, and increased blood glucose levels are not typically associated with excessive fludrocortisone replacement.
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