Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in the newborn nursery, assisting with data collection for a newborn, prepares to measure the chest circumference. The nurse places the tape measure around the infant at which location?

• A. In the axillary area
• B. At the level of the nipples
• C. Two inches below the nipples
• D. At the level of the umbilicus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The chest circumference of the infant is measured at the level of the nipples. It is usually 2 to 3 cm smaller than the head circumference. The average chest circumference is 30.5 to 33 cm (12-13 inches). When there is molding of the head, the head and chest measurements may be equal at birth. Placing the tape measure at the level of the nipples ensures accuracy and consistency in newborn assessment. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as the chest circumference is specifically measured at the level of the nipples to obtain precise measurements.

2. A nurse in the healthcare provider's office is checking the Babinski reflex in a 3-month-old infant. The nurse determines that the infant's response is normal if which finding is noted?

• A. The fingers curl tightly, and the toes curl forward.
• B. The toes flare, and the big toe is dorsiflexed.
• C. There is extension of the extremities on the side to which the head is turned, with flexion on the opposite side.
• D. The infant turns to the side that is touched.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To elicit the Babinski reflex, the nurse strokes the lateral sole of the foot from the heel to across the base of the toes. In the expected response, the toes flare, and the big toe dorsiflexes. The Babinski reflex disappears at 12 months of age. Turning to the side that is touched is the expected response when the rooting reflex is elicited. Tight curling of the fingers and forward curling of the toes is the expected response when the grasp reflex (palmar and plantar) is elicited. Extension of the extremities on the side to which the head is turned with flexion on the opposite side is the expected response when the tonic neck reflex is elicited.

3. If Ms. Barrett's distance vision is 20/30, which of the following statements is true?

• A. The client can read from 20' what a person with normal vision can read at 30'.
• B. The client can read from 30' what a person with normal vision can read at 20'.
• C. The client can read the entire chart from 30'.
• D. The client can read the chart from 20' with the left eye and from 30' with the right eye.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When Ms. Barrett's distance vision is measured as 20/30, it means that she can read from 20 feet away what a person with normal vision can read at 30 feet. The numerator (20) represents the distance in feet between the chart and the client, while the denominator (30) indicates the distance at which a normal eye can read the chart. In this case, Ms. Barrett's vision is slightly worse than normal, as she needs to be closer to the chart to read it clearly. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: Choice B reverses the distances, Choice C assumes the client can read the entire chart from 30 feet, and Choice D introduces information not related to the 20/30 measurement.

4. When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Asks the client to identify a small object brought into the visual field
• B. Has the client cover one eye while the nurse covers one eye and slowly advances a target midline between them
• C. Covers one eye, while the client covers the opposite eye, and brings a small object into the visual field
• D. Positions at eye level with the client, covers one eye, and has the client cover the opposite eye, then brings a small object into the visual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When performing the confrontation test to assess peripheral vision, the nurse should position at eye level with the client, cover one eye, and have the client cover the opposite eye. This approach allows the examiner to bring a small object into the visual field to evaluate the client's peripheral vision. The test aims to compare the client's peripheral vision with the examiner's vision to identify any visual field deficits. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A pertains to testing color vision, which is not part of the confrontation test. Choice B describes a different procedure that involves advancing a target midline between the client and examiner, not the correct approach for the confrontation test. Choice C is inaccurate as it fails to include the essential step of positioning at eye level with the client, making it an incorrect representation of the confrontation test.

5. When testing the function of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, which parameter does a nurse check to determine their function?

• A. Tongue symmetry
• B. Eye movements
• C. Facial symmetry
• D. Corneal reflex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eye movements. When assessing the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves, evaluating eye movements is crucial. This assessment includes checking the pupils for size, regularity, equality, light reactions, accommodation, and extraocular movements in various gaze positions. Tongue symmetry is primarily used to evaluate cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve) function. Facial symmetry is a key indicator of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) function. The corneal reflex assesses sensory afferents in cranial nerve V (trigeminal nerve) and motor efferents in cranial nerve VII (facial nerve).

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