Nursing Elites

1. What is the primary focus of a case manager?

• A. Addressing nursing care needs at discharge.
• B. Managing the comprehensive care needs of the client for continuity of care.
• C. Providing client education needs upon discharge.
• D. Securing financial resources for needed care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Managing the comprehensive care needs of the client for continuity of care.' Case managers oversee all aspects of a client's care to ensure continuity throughout their healthcare journey. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses only on nursing care needs at discharge, which is just a part of the overall care needed. Choice C narrows down the focus to client education needs, excluding other essential care components. Choice D solely considers financial resources, neglecting the broader scope of care needs that a case manager is accountable for.

2. A client who is experiencing infertility says to the nurse, 'I feel I will be incomplete as a man/woman if I cannot have a child.' Which of the following nursing diagnoses is likely to be appropriate for this client?

• A. Risk for Self-Harm
• B. Body Image Disturbance
• C. Ineffective Role Performance
• D. Powerlessness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for this client is 'Body Image Disturbance.' The client's statement reflects concerns about self-identity and feeling incomplete due to infertility, which aligns with Body Image Disturbance. The statement does not directly indicate a risk for self-harm, so 'Risk for Self-Harm' is not the correct choice. 'Ineffective Role Performance' is not the best option as it does not address the client's primary concern regarding self-image. While 'Powerlessness' could be appropriate if the client expressed feelings of powerlessness related to infertility, it is not the most suitable diagnosis based on the given statement.

3. During a voice test, how should the nurse provide words for the client to repeat?

• A. Spoken in a soft tone of voice by the nurse about 5 feet in front of the client
• B. Whispered by the nurse from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested
• C. Spoken by the nurse from the client's side in a normal tone of voice about 10 feet from the ear being tested
• D. Whispered at a distance of 20 feet by the nurse while he or she is standing in front of the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a voice test, the nurse should whisper words from the client's side at a distance of 1 to 2 feet from the ear being tested. This distance helps prevent transmission around the head and ensures accurate testing of one ear at a time. By standing close to the client and whispering, the nurse prevents lip-reading and compensatory actions by the client. The client with normal hearing should be able to repeat each word correctly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A is wrong as the voice should be whispered, not spoken in a soft tone. Choice C is inaccurate because a distance of 10 feet is too far for precise testing. Choice D is incorrect as whispering from a distance of 20 feet would not effectively test the client's hearing.

4. An assessment of the skull of a normal 10-month-old baby should identify which of the following?

• A. closure of the posterior fontanel.
• B. closure of the anterior fontanel.
• C. overlap of cranial bones.
• D. ossification of the sutures

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is the closure of the posterior fontanel. By 10 months of age, the posterior fontanel should be closed. The anterior fontanel typically closes around 12-18 months of age. Overlapping of cranial bones is not a normal finding and may indicate craniosynostosis, a condition where the sutures close too early. Ossification of the sutures is also not a normal finding in a 10-month-old baby as the sutures should remain open to allow for the growth of the skull.

5. A nurse is assisting with data collection on the language development of a 9-month-old infant. Which developmental milestone does the nurse expect to note in an infant of this age?

• A. The infant babbles single consonants
• B. The infant babbles
• C. The infant says 'Mama.'
• D. The infant says 'Mama.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An 8- to 9-month-old infant can string vowels and consonants together. The first words, such as 'Mama,' 'Daddy,' 'bye-bye,' and 'baby,' begin to have meaning. A 1- to 3-month-old infant produces cooing sounds. Babbling is common in a 3- to 4-month-old. Single-consonant babbling occurs between 6 and 8 months of age. Therefore, the milestone of the infant saying 'Mama' is the most appropriate for a 9-month-old, indicating early language development. The other choices are developmentally inaccurate for a 9-month-old infant.

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