Nursing Elites

1. A nurse assisting with data collection plans to perform the Romberg test. After describing the test to the client, the nurse tells the client that it will help reveal which disorder?

• A. Loss of hearing acuity
• B. A problem with balance
• C. A problem with distant hearing
• D. A problem discriminating high-pitched and low-pitched sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Romberg test is a balance assessment that evaluates cerebellar function. During the test, the client stands with feet together and eyes closed, aiming to maintain balance for about 20 seconds. This test helps identify issues related to balance and proprioception, not hearing acuity or sound discrimination. Choices C and D are incorrect as the Romberg test focuses on balance, not distant hearing or sound discrimination.

2. The LPN is caring for a client admitted for acute pancreatitis. Which of these medications would be the least appropriate for pain management?

• A. Tylenol
• B. Tramadol
• C. Codeine
• D. Morphine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Morphine is the least appropriate choice for pain management in pancreatitis due to its potential to cause spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi, which can worsen the client's condition by potentially obstructing the pancreatic duct. Tylenol, Tramadol, and Codeine are more suitable options for pain management in acute pancreatitis as they do not carry the same risk of exacerbating the condition by causing spasms in the Sphincter of Oddi.

3. What is the threshold of dextrose concentrations that can safely be administered through a peripheral IV?

• A. Dextrose concentrations below 20% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 20% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• B. Dextrose concentrations below 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• C. Dextrose concentrations below 10% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.
• D. Dextrose concentrations above 5% can be safely administered through a peripheral IV; dextrose concentrations below 5% should not be administered through a peripheral IV.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dextrose concentrations below 10% are considered safe for administration through a peripheral IV, as concentrations above this threshold can lead to phlebitis, causing inflammation of the vein. Concentrations above 10% should not be administered through a peripheral IV to prevent vein irritation. Choice A is incorrect because concentrations above 20% are too high for a peripheral IV. Choice B is incorrect as dextrose concentrations below 5% are too low to be effective. Choice D is incorrect because the statement is reversed, suggesting that concentrations above 5% are safe, which is not true.

4. A nurse is supervising a student in preparing the physical environment for an interview with a client. Which action by the student is correct?

• A. Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level
• B. Placing a chair for the client across from the nurse's desk
• C. Providing seating for the client so that the client faces a strong light
• D. Setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When preparing the physical environment for an interview with a client, it is crucial to ensure the client's comfort. Setting the room temperature at a comfortable level is essential for the client's well-being. Additionally, providing privacy, sufficient lighting, and removing distractions are crucial factors. It is recommended to maintain a distance of around 4 to 5 feet between the client and the nurse. Seating should be arranged so that the client and nurse are at eye level to facilitate effective communication and prevent barriers. Placing a chair across from the nurse's desk may create a physical barrier, positioning the client to face a strong light can be uncomfortable and distracting, and setting up seating so that the client and nurse are not at eye level may impede effective communication.

5. An amniocentesis is scheduled for a pregnant client in the third trimester. The nurse informs the client that the most common indication for amniocentesis during the third trimester is for which reason?

• A. Determination of whether alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is present in the amniotic fluid
• B. Checking the amniotic fluid for intrauterine infection
• C. Determination of fetal lung maturity
• D. Checking the fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most common indication for amniocentesis in the third trimester is the determination of fetal lung maturity. This assessment is essential to evaluate the fetus's readiness for extrauterine life. Checking for alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid is more commonly associated with midtrimester amniocentesis to identify chromosomal abnormalities. Assessing for intrauterine infection is not a primary reason for amniocentesis in the third trimester. While checking fetal cells for chromosomal abnormalities is a common indication for midtrimester amniocentesis, it is not the most common indication in the third trimester.

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