NCLEX-PN
Health Promotion and Maintenance NCLEX PN Questions
1. Which of the following is an example of an extended care facility?
- A. Home health agency
- B. Suicide prevention center
- C. State-owned psychiatric hospital
- D. Nursing facility
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An extended care facility typically provides long-term care for individuals who require continuous assistance with activities of daily living. A nursing facility fits this description as it offers skilled nursing care and assistance with daily activities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a home health agency provides care in the patient's home, a suicide prevention center focuses on mental health crisis intervention, and a state-owned psychiatric hospital offers mental health treatment, none of which are synonymous with extended care facilities.
2. When removing hard contact lenses from an unresponsive client, what should the nurse do?
- A. Gently irrigate the eye with an irrigating solution from the inner canthus outward.
- B. Grasp the lens with a gentle pinching motion.
- C. Don sterile gloves before attempting the procedure.
- D. Ensure that the lens is centered on the cornea before gently manipulating the lids to release the lens.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When removing hard contact lenses, it is crucial to ensure that the lens is correctly positioned on the cornea before removal. Directly grasping the lens can potentially scratch the cornea, so it is essential to gently manipulate the lids to release the lens safely. Gently irrigating the eye is unnecessary and could be harmful, especially without the client's cooperation. Wearing sterile gloves is also unnecessary for this specific procedure. Therefore, the correct approach is to ensure the proper positioning of the lens and then gently manipulate the lids to release it. Options A and C are incorrect because irrigating the eye and wearing sterile gloves are not necessary for contact lens removal. Option B is incorrect as directly grasping the lens can be harmful to the cornea.
3. A client with massive chest and head injuries is admitted to the ICU from the Emergency Department. All of the following are true except:
- A. The physician in charge of the case is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur.
- B. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation for the donor if the client is unable to do so.
- C. The organ procurement organization makes the decision regarding which organs to harvest.
- D. The donor (or legally responsible party for the donor), the physician, and the organ-procurement organization are all involved in the process.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: While the physician plays a crucial role in the process of organ donation, they are not the sole decision-maker. The client's legally responsible party may make the decision for organ donation if the client is unable to do so. Additionally, the organ procurement organization is responsible for determining which organs are suitable for donation. Therefore, the statement that the physician in charge is the sole person allowed to decide whether organ donation can occur is incorrect. The correct answer is A. Choices B, C, and D are true statements as they highlight the involvement of the legally responsible party, the organ procurement organization, and the donor/legally responsible party, physician, and organ-procurement organization in the organ donation process respectively.
4. When determining a fetal heart rate (FHR) and noting accelerations from the baseline rate when the fetus is moving, a nurse interprets this finding as:
- A. A reassuring sign
- B. An indication of the need to contact the physician
- C. An indication of fetal distress
- D. A nonreassuring sign
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse notes accelerations from the baseline rate of the fetal heart rate, particularly when they occur with fetal movement, it is considered a reassuring sign. This indicates a healthy response to fetal activity. Reassuring signs in FHR monitoring include an average rate between 120 and 160 beats/min at term, a regular rhythm with slight fluctuations, accelerations from the baseline rate (often associated with fetal movement), and the absence of decreases from the baseline rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because accelerations in FHR with fetal movement are not indicative of the need to contact the physician, fetal distress, or a nonreassuring sign. These signs would typically be associated with other abnormal FHR patterns that would warrant further assessment and intervention.
5. A client has just returned from surgery where a femoral-popliteal bypass was performed. The nurse has assessed the client and is unable to feel a pulse at either the dorsalis pedis or the posterior tibial sites of the left foot. The foot feels warm, and the color is pink. What action should the nurse perform next to prevent ischemia?
- A. Notify the physician immediately
- B. Obtain a Doppler device to check for pulses, and notify the physician if they are still absent
- C. Wait 30 minutes and recheck the pulses
- D. Document the finding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should immediately obtain a Doppler device and recheck the pulses. The dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses can be difficult to assess and might need to be verified with a Doppler device. Since the client just had surgery with a risk of arterial insufficiency, close monitoring is crucial. If pulses are not palpable, it indicates an emergent situation requiring immediate physician notification. Waiting 30 minutes before reassessment could lead to foot ischemia. While documenting findings is essential, it should follow pulse confirmation or necessary interventions to ensure the client's foot viability.
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