Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an example of an extended care facility?

• A. Home health agency
• B. Suicide prevention center
• C. State-owned psychiatric hospital
• D. Nursing facility

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An extended care facility typically provides long-term care for individuals who require continuous assistance with activities of daily living. A nursing facility fits this description as it offers skilled nursing care and assistance with daily activities. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a home health agency provides care in the patient's home, a suicide prevention center focuses on mental health crisis intervention, and a state-owned psychiatric hospital offers mental health treatment, none of which are synonymous with extended care facilities.

2. When discussing birth control methods with a client, what major factor should a nurse focus on to provide the motivation needed for consistent implementation of a birth control method?

• A. Personal preference
• B. Work and home schedules
• C. Family planning goals
• D. Desire to have children in the future

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When discussing birth control methods with a client, a nurse should focus on the client's personal preference as a major factor that will provide the motivation needed for consistent implementation of a birth control method. Personal preference plays a key role in ensuring that the chosen method aligns with the client's lifestyle and values, increasing the likelihood of adherence. While work and home schedules, family planning goals, and the desire to have children in the future can influence the choice of birth control method, they are not the primary motivating factors for consistent implementation. Personal preference is crucial as it empowers the client to select a method that suits their individual needs and preferences, ultimately leading to better compliance and effectiveness.

3. Regarding maternal and infant mortality and morbidity, a concern is that:

• A. a segment of the population is not receiving prenatal care.
• B. families may not prioritize quality health care.
• C. there might be an increase in the shortage of personnel in the maternity field.
• D. maternal-child health workers may lack adequate preparation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is that a segment of the population is not receiving prenatal care. This is a significant concern as lack of access to prenatal care can lead to adverse outcomes for both the mother and the infant. Choice B is incorrect as it generalizes families as unconcerned, which may not be the case for all families. Choice C is also incorrect as there is no evidence or indication in the prompt to suggest an increase in the shortage of personnel. Choice D is not directly related to the concern mentioned in the prompt, which specifically focuses on the lack of prenatal care.

4. A nurse is preparing to screen a client's vision with the use of a Snellen chart. The nurse uses which technique?

• A. Tests the right eye, then tests the left eye, and finally tests both eyes together
• B. Assesses both eyes together, then assesses the right and left eyes separately
• C. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the largest line on the chart
• D. Asks the client to stand 40 feet from the chart and read the line that can be read 200 feet away by someone with unimpaired vision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To test visual acuity with the use of a Snellen chart, the nurse places the chart in a well-lit spot at the client's eye level, with the client positioned exactly 20 feet from the chart. The client shields one eye at a time with an opaque card during the test. After testing each eye separately, both eyes are assessed together. The client is asked to read the smallest line of letters visible and encouraged to read the next smallest line as well. Therefore, option A is correct as it describes the correct technique of testing one eye at a time before assessing both eyes together. Option B is incorrect as it assesses both eyes together first, which is not the standard procedure. Options C and D are incorrect as they suggest standing 40 feet from the chart, which contradicts the standard distance of 20 feet for a Snellen chart test.

5. A patient reports, "I tore 3 of my 4 Rotator cuff muscles in the past."? Which of the following muscles cannot be considered as possibly being torn?

• A. Teres minor
• B. Teres major
• C. Supraspinatus
• D. Infraspinatus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Teres major. The Rotator Cuff consists of Teres Minor, Infraspinatus, Supraspinatus, and Subscapularis muscles, not Teres major. Teres major is not part of the rotator cuff, so it cannot be considered as possibly being torn. The other choices, Teres minor, Supraspinatus, and Infraspinatus, are all part of the Rotator Cuff and could potentially be torn in this patient's case.

Similar Questions