Nursing Elites

1. A client with peripheral artery disease tells the nurse that pain develops in his left calf when he is walking and subsides with rest. The nurse documents that the client is most likely experiencing which disorder?

• A. Venous insufficiency
• B. Intermittent claudication
• C. Sore muscles from overexertion
• D. Muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Leg pain characteristic of peripheral artery disease is known as intermittent claudication. The client can walk only a certain distance before cramping, burning, muscle discomfort, or pain forces them to stop, with the pain subsiding after rest. The pain is reproducible, and as the disease progresses, the client can walk shorter distances before the pain recurs. Ultimately, pain may even occur at rest. Venous insufficiency (Choice A) involves impaired blood flow in the veins, leading to swelling and skin changes but not typically pain associated with exercise. Sore muscles from overexertion (Choice C) and muscle cramps related to musculoskeletal problems (Choice D) do not present with the characteristic pattern of pain associated with peripheral artery disease.

2. To identify risk factors associated with the use of an oral contraceptive, which question should the nurse ask a client providing subjective data?

• A. Do you normally experience menstrual cramps with your periods?
• B. Do you smoke cigarettes?
• C. Are you currently dieting?
• D. Do you engage in strenuous exercise, such as jogging?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask to identify risk factors associated with the use of an oral contraceptive is whether the client smokes cigarettes. Oral contraceptives are associated with an increased risk of thromboembolic phenomena, particularly when combined with other risk factors like smoking and a history of thrombosis. Other risk factors include hypertension, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, and postoperative thrombosis risk. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to the increased risks associated with oral contraceptive use. Menstrual cramps, dieting, and strenuous exercise are not significant risk factors for thromboembolic events.

3. A rubella titer is performed on a pregnant client, and the results indicate a titer of less than 1:8. The nurse provides the client with which information?

• A. She must have been exposed to the rubella virus at some point in her life.
• B. The test will need to be repeated during the pregnancy.
• C. She has not developed immunity to the rubella virus.
• D. The test results are normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A rubella titer of less than 1:8 indicates that the client is not immune to rubella. In such cases, retesting will be necessary during the pregnancy. If the client is found to be non-immune, rubella immunization is required post-delivery. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A suggests exposure, which cannot be confirmed by the titer result. Choice C wrongly implies that the client has not developed immunity, which is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as the titer result is not within the normal immune range.

4. When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, which information should a nurse recognize as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy?

• A. family history of stroke
• B. ovaries removed before age 45
• C. frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats
• D. unexplained vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When obtaining a health history on a menopausal woman, unexplained vaginal bleeding should be recognized as a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. This is because it can be a sign of underlying issues that need to be addressed before starting hormone therapy. A family history of stroke is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy unless the woman herself has a history of stroke or blood-clotting events. Ovaries removed before age 45 is not a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy. Frequent hot flashes and/or night sweats can be relieved by hormone replacement therapy; therefore, they are not contraindications.

5. When a client who is 25 years of age asks the nurse when she should seek fertility counseling, the best response by the nurse is:

• A. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have been unable to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse."?
• B. "Fertility counseling should be sought when you have not been able to conceive after 6-9 months of unprotected intercourse."?
• C. "The average time it takes someone your age to conceive is 5.3 months, so if you haven't conceived by then, we can refer you."?
• D. "We can give you some guidance now on how to increase your chances of conceiving and then refer you if it doesn't happen within a year."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response in this scenario is to offer immediate guidance while also indicating when fertility counseling should be sought. While Choice A is technically correct as guidelines recommend seeking fertility counseling after 1 year of unprotected intercourse, it lacks providing immediate guidance. Choice B suggests seeking counseling after 6-9 months, which is earlier than the standard recommendation of 1 year. Choice C mentions the average time to conceive for someone of the client's age without addressing the client's current concern. Therefore, Choice D is the most appropriate response as it offers immediate guidance along with a plan for referral if needed.

Similar Questions