Nursing Elites

1. A client with Kawasaki disease has bilateral congestion of the conjunctivae, dry cracked lips, a strawberry tongue, and edema of the hands and feet followed by desquamation of fingers and toes. Which of the following nursing measures is most appropriate to meet the expected outcome of positive body image?

• A. administering immune globulin intravenously
• B. assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours
• C. explaining progression of the disease to the client and their family
• D. assessing heart sounds and rhythm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Explaining the progression of the disease to the client and their family is the most appropriate nursing measure to promote a positive body image. By educating them about when symptoms are expected to improve and resolve, they can understand that there will be no permanent disruption in physical appearance that could negatively impact body image. While administering immune globulin intravenously may be part of the treatment for Kawasaki disease, it does not directly address body image concerns. Assessing the extremities for edema, redness, and desquamation every 8 hours is important for monitoring the disease but does not directly impact body image. Assessing heart sounds and rhythm is crucial for monitoring cardiac effects of Kawasaki disease but is not directly related to promoting a positive body image.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who has dysphagia related to a stroke. The nurse works with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration. What is this an example of?

• A. Health promotion
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Primary prevention

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse working with the client to explain what food and beverages might minimize aspiration is an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention to prevent complications or worsening of a condition. In this case, the nurse is helping to prevent aspiration pneumonia by providing education and guidance on safe eating and drinking practices after the client has already experienced dysphagia due to a stroke. Choice A, health promotion, focuses on empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to improve overall well-being and prevent illness. It is more about promoting general health rather than specific interventions related to a particular condition like dysphagia. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and rehabilitating a condition to prevent further complications or disabilities. In this scenario, the nurse is not yet addressing complications but rather actively preventing them. Choice D, primary prevention, aims to prevent the onset of a disease or condition before it occurs. The client in this case already has dysphagia, so the focus is on preventing further complications, making it a secondary prevention intervention.

3. All of the following are clinical manifestations indicating male climacteric except:

• A. hot flashes
• B. loss of reproductive ability
• C. headaches
• D. heart palpitations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Male climacteric, also known as andropause, is a stage in a man's life characterized by a decline in testosterone levels and various physical and emotional changes. While men may experience symptoms like hot flashes, headaches, and heart palpitations during male climacteric, they do not typically lose their reproductive ability. Although fertility may decrease with age due to reduced testosterone production, men do not entirely lose the ability to reproduce. Therefore, the correct answer is 'loss of reproductive ability.' Choices A, C, and D are symptoms that can be associated with male climacteric, making them incorrect answers.

4. Which of the following is least appropriate when caring for a stable postpartum client?

• A. Assess the location and height of the fundus.
• B. Conduct a family assessment, including the mother's future plans for returning to work, if applicable.
• C. Monitor the client for bleeding.
• D. Provide perineal care.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Providing perineal care is not the least appropriate when caring for a stable postpartum client. Perineal care is essential for maintaining hygiene and preventing infection after delivery. Assessing the location and height of the fundus helps in monitoring postpartum uterine involution, which is crucial for assessing the recovery progress. Conducting a family assessment, including the mother's future plans for returning to work, is important for understanding the support system available for the mother during the postpartum period. Monitoring the client for bleeding is critical to promptly identify and address any postpartum hemorrhage. Therefore, providing perineal care is the least appropriate option among the choices provided as it is a fundamental aspect of postpartum care.

5. The greatest time savers when planning client care include all of the following except:

• A. reacting to the crisis of the moment
• B. setting goals
• C. planning
• D. specifying priorities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The greatest time-savers when planning client care are activities that facilitate focus and completion of priority items. Time-savers include setting goals, specifying priorities, planning tasks, delegating where appropriate, reassessment, and ongoing evaluation of needs. Reacting to the crisis of the moment is not a time-saving strategy in client care planning; it can lead to inefficiency, lack of focus, and potentially missing important priority items. Therefore, the correct answer is 'reacting to the crisis of the moment.' Choices B, C, and D are essential components for effective client care planning as they help in organizing and prioritizing tasks, setting objectives, and ensuring a structured approach to care delivery.

Similar Questions