Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to assess the dorsalis pedis pulse. The nurse palpates this pulse by placing the fingertips in which location?

• A. Behind the knee
• B. Lateral to the extensor tendon of the big toe
• C. In the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon
• D. Below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct location to palpate the dorsalis pedis pulse is lateral to and parallel with the extensor tendon of the big toe. Choices A, C, and D describe the locations for other pulses - popliteal, posterior tibial, and femoral artery respectively. The popliteal pulse is found behind the knee, the posterior tibial pulse is located in the groove between the malleolus and the Achilles tendon, and the femoral artery is situated below the inguinal ligament, halfway between the pubis and the anterior superior iliac spines.

2. A client with dumping syndrome should..........................while a client with GERD should..........................

• A. Sit up 1 hour after meals; lie flat 30 minutes after meals
• B. Lie down 1 hour after eating; sit up at least 30 minutes after eating
• C. Sit up after meals; sit up after meals
• D. Lie down after meals; lie down after meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a client with dumping syndrome, lying down 1 hour after eating helps reduce symptoms by slowing down the movement of food through the digestive tract, aiding in symptom management. This position assists in symptom management for dumping syndrome. Conversely, for a client with GERD, sitting up at least 30 minutes after eating can help prevent the backflow of stomach acid into the esophagus, reducing reflux symptoms. This upright position is beneficial for managing GERD. Choice A is incorrect because sitting up is recommended for GERD, not dumping syndrome. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests sitting up for both conditions, which is not appropriate. Choice D is incorrect as lying down after meals is not recommended for GERD; it can worsen symptoms by promoting acid reflux.

3. A nurse reviewing a client's record notes that the result of the client's latest Snellen chart vision test was 20/80. The nurse interprets the client's results in which way?

• A. The client is legally blind.
• B. The client has normal vision.
• C. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet.
• D. The client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When interpreting visual acuity testing results using the Snellen chart, the recorded numeric fraction represents the distance the client is standing from the chart and the distance a normal eye could read that particular line. A reading of 20/80 means that the client can read at 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 80 feet. This indicates visual impairment but does not meet the criteria for legal blindness, which is defined as best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or worse. Normal visual acuity is 20/20. Therefore, the correct interpretation is that the client can read at a distance of 80 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet. Choice A is incorrect because 20/80 does not meet the criteria for legal blindness. Choice B is incorrect as the client's vision is impaired. Choice C is incorrect because it reverses the interpretation of the fraction.

4. A nurse is preparing to test the function of cranial nerve XI. Which action does the nurse take to test this nerve?

• A. Asking the client to stick out his or her tongue and watching for tremors
• B. Touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex
• C. Depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah'
• D. Placing his or her hands on the client's shoulders and asking the client to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To assess the function of cranial nerve XI (spinal accessory nerve), the nurse examines the sternomastoid and trapezius muscles for equal size and strength. The correct method involves asking the client to rotate the head forcibly against resistance to the side of the chin and to shrug the shoulders against resistance from the nurse's hands. Choice A, asking the client to stick out the tongue and watching for tremors, is used to assess cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal nerve). Choice C, depressing the client's tongue with a tongue blade and noting pharyngeal function as the client says 'ah', is the technique for examining cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve). Choice B, touching the posterior pharyngeal wall with a tongue blade and noting the gag reflex, is used to evaluate cranial nerves IX (glossopharyngeal nerve) and X (vagus nerve), not cranial nerve XI.

5. A client states, "I eat a well-balanced diet. I do not smoke. I exercise regularly, and I have a yearly checkup with my physician. What else can I do to help prevent cancer?"? The nurse should respond with which of the following statements?

• A. Sleep at least 6-8 hours per night.
• B. Practice monthly self-breast examinations.
• C. Reduce stress.
• D. All of the above.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: All of the choices are methods of preventing cancer. Sleep is important in maintaining homeostasis, which helps the body respond to disease. Monthly breast examination can indicate cancer or fibrocystic disease. Stress can have a physiological response that decreases the immune response and increases the risk of disease. Therefore, all the options mentioned are important for cancer prevention, making 'All of the above' the correct response.

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