Nursing Elites

1. A school nurse provides information to the parents of school-age children regarding appropriate dental care. The nurse tells the parents that their children should perform which action?

• A. Brush and floss their teeth after meals and at bedtime
• B. Brush their teeth every morning and at bedtime and floss the teeth once a day, preferably at bedtime
• C. Brush their teeth every morning and at bedtime
• D. Brush and floss their teeth every morning and at bedtime

Correct answer: A

Rationale: School-age children are capable of taking responsibility for their own dental hygiene. Establishing good oral health habits during childhood can lead to a lifetime of cavity prevention. The nurse advises the parents that their children should brush with fluoride toothpaste and floss between their teeth after meals and before bedtime. This routine helps maintain good oral health and teaches children the importance of dental care. Choice A is the correct answer as it emphasizes both brushing and flossing after meals and at bedtime, which are crucial for effective dental care. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not stress the significance of both brushing and flossing after meals, which is essential for proper oral hygiene.

2. A client in labor complains of back discomfort. Which position will best aid in relieving the discomfort? What position should the nurse encourage the mother to assume?

• A. Prone
• B. Standing
• C. Supine
• D. Hands and knees

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During back labor, when the back of the fetal head puts pressure on the woman's sacral promontory, the hands-and-knees position is encouraged. This position helps the fetus move away from the sacral promontory, reducing back pain and enhancing the internal-rotation mechanism of labor. A prone position would be difficult for the woman to assume and not helpful in relieving back discomfort. The supine position is risky due to supine hypotension, while standing may increase pressure, worsening backache.

3. A nurse, monitoring a client in the fourth stage of labor, checks the client's vital signs every 15 minutes. The nurse notes that the client's pulse rate has increased from 70 to 100 beats/min. On the basis of this finding, which priority action should the nurse take?

• A. Continuing to check the client's vital signs every 15 minutes
• B. Notifying the registered nurse immediately
• C. Checking the client's uterine fundus
• D. Documenting the vital signs in the client's medical record

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the fourth stage of labor, the woman's vital signs should be assessed every 15 minutes during the first hour. An increasing pulse rate is an early sign of excessive blood loss, as the heart beats faster to compensate for reduced blood volume. The blood pressure decreases as blood volume diminishes, but this is a later sign of hypovolemia. The most common reason for excessive postpartum bleeding is a uterus that is not firmly contracting and compressing open vessels at the placental site. Therefore, the nurse should check the client's uterine fundus for firmness, height, and positioning. Checking the uterine fundus is the priority action as it helps determine if the client is bleeding excessively. Notifying the registered nurse immediately is not necessary unless the cause of bleeding is unclear and needs further intervention. Continuing to check vital signs without addressing the potential issue will delay necessary intervention. Documenting findings is important, but not the immediate priority when faced with a potential emergency situation like postpartum hemorrhage.

4. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

• A. Near vision
• B. Color vision
• C. Distant vision
• D. Peripheral vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

5. A new mother is being discharged from the maternity unit and provided with information about signs and symptoms to report to her health care provider. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further information?

• A. ''I will call my nurse-midwife if I experience any redness, swelling, or tenderness in my legs.''
• B. ''My temperature needs to remain within a normal range.''
• C. ''Frequent urination and burning when I urinate are expected.''
• D. ''Feelings of pelvic fullness or pelvic pressure are a sign of a problem.''

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Frequent urination and burning when I urinate are expected.' This statement by the mother indicates a need for further information because these symptoms are not normal and could indicate a urinary tract infection or another issue that needs medical attention. The other choices correctly reflect signs and symptoms that should be reported to the health care provider. Redness, swelling, or tenderness in the legs can indicate a blood clot, and feelings of pelvic fullness or pressure can be signs of a problem. Monitoring temperature is also important to ensure there is no infection or other complications postpartum.

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