Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles.
• B. When refrigerating formula, discard partially used bottles after 24 hours.
• C. When using formula concentrate, mix one part concentrate and two parts water.
• D. If a portion of one bottle is left for the next feeding, discard it.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to use the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles. It is crucial to be cautious when heating bottles in a microwave to prevent milk from becoming superheated. The defrost setting is recommended, and the formula's temperature should always be checked before feeding the baby. Choice B, which advises to discard partially used bottles of refrigerated formula after 24 hours, is also correct. This is important to prevent the introduction of pathogens by the baby into the formula. Choice C, recommending mixing one part formula concentrate with two parts water, is essential for ensuring the correct dilution. Choice D, suggesting to discard any remaining portion of a bottle for the next feeding, is incorrect. It is not necessary to discard the remaining portion if it has been refrigerated promptly and used within a safe time frame. Adding fresh formula to a partially used bottle is not recommended, as it can lead to the growth of pathogens that may be transferred to the new formula.

2. A nurse monitoring a newborn infant notes that the infant's respirations are 40 breaths/min. On the basis of this finding, what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Contacting the registered nurse
• B. Documenting the findings
• C. Wrapping an extra blanket around the infant
• D. Placing the infant in an oxygen tent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal respiratory rate of a newborn infant is 30 to 60 breaths/min, with an average of 40. Since the infant's respiratory rate falls within the normal range, the most appropriate action for the nurse is to document the findings. Contacting the registered nurse, placing the infant in an oxygen tent, or wrapping an extra blanket around the infant are unnecessary actions as the respiratory rate is normal. Documenting the findings is important to provide a record of the assessment and serve as a baseline for future comparisons if needed.

3. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's record notes documentation that the client has melena. How does the healthcare professional detect the presence of melena?

• A. By checking the client's urine for blood
• B. By checking the client's stool for blood
• C. By checking the client's urine for a decrease in output
• D. By checking the client's bowel movements for diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Melena' is the term used to describe abnormal black tarry stool that has a distinctive odor and contains digested blood. It usually results from bleeding in the upper gastrointestinal tract and is often a sign of peptic ulcer disease or small bowel disease. The presence of melena is detected by checking the client's stool for blood. Blood in the client's urine, decreased urine output, and diarrhea are not associated with the assessment for melena.

4. A nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the FHR?

• A. Stethoscope
• B. Doppler transducer
• C. Fetoscope
• D. Pulse oximetry on the client and a fetoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess the fetal heart rate of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant, the nurse should use a Doppler transducer. Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation, making it the most appropriate choice for this scenario. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds, so it is an incorrect choice in this context.

5. An adult client tells the clinic nurse that he is susceptible to middle ear infections. About which risk factor related to infection of the ears does the nurse question this client?

• A. Loud music
• B. Use of power tools
• C. Occupational noise
• D. Exposure to cigarette smoke

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Exposure to cigarette smoke.' Otitis media (middle ear infection) is associated with various factors like colds, allergies, sore throats, and blockage of the eustachian tubes. Risk factors include exposure to cigarette smoke, youth (as otitis media is usually a childhood disease), congenital abnormalities, immune deficiencies, family history of otitis media, recent upper respiratory infections, and allergies. Choices A, B, and C (Loud music, Use of power tools, and Occupational noise) are more likely to cause hearing loss rather than being direct risk factors for middle ear infections.

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