a 32 year old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for morphine via iv the nurse should do which of the following first
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. A 32-year-old male with a complaint of dizziness has an order for Morphine via IV. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to retake the patient's vitals, including blood pressure. Dizziness can be a sign of hypotension, which may be a contraindication for administering Morphine. Checking the chest x-ray results (Choice A) would not be the priority in this case as addressing the dizziness is more urgent. Performing a neurological screening (Choice C) may be important but not the first step when a patient presents with dizziness and an order for Morphine. Requesting the physician to assess the patient (Choice D) should come after the initial assessment and vitals retake.

2. The client has been taking divalproex (Depakote) for the management of bipolar disorder. The nurse should give priority to monitoring which laboratory test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Monitoring ALT levels is crucial when a patient is taking divalproex (Depakote) due to the risk of drug-induced hepatitis. Elevated ALT levels indicate liver damage or disorders, which can be a side effect of Depakote. Serum glucose (choice B) is not the priority for monitoring in this case, as the medication does not directly affect glucose levels. Serum creatinine (choice C) is not the most relevant test to monitor for Depakote use; it primarily assesses kidney function. Serum electrolytes (choice D) are important but do not take precedence over monitoring ALT levels when a patient is on Depakote.

3. The LPN is preparing to ambulate a client post total knee replacement. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform prior to ambulating the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to perform before ambulating a client post total knee replacement is to assist the client to a sitting position at the edge of the bed. This step is crucial to prevent orthostatic hypotension and ensure the client is ready to stand and walk safely. Having the client march in place or raise his arms above his head are not necessary preparations for ambulation. While knowing about the client's fall history is important for safety reasons, it is not the priority action immediately before ambulating the client.

4. A client is being taught about self-administration of Haldol 15 mg po hs. For which side effect/s should the client seek medical attention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is restlessness and muscle spasms. Haldol, an antipsychotic medication, can cause extrapyramidal side effects such as muscle spasms and restlessness. These side effects can be serious and should prompt the client to seek medical attention. Shortness of breath, fatigue, dry mouth, and diarrhea are not commonly associated with Haldol use, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

5. What is the number one reason a person with alcohol addiction does not seek treatment?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial. Individuals with alcohol addiction often deny that they have a drinking problem and may become defensive when confronted about it. This sense of denial can be a significant barrier to seeking treatment. Co-dependency, referred to in choice A, is a relationship dynamic and is not the primary reason for avoiding treatment. Depression, as mentioned in choice C, is a common co-occurring condition with alcohol addiction but is not typically the main factor preventing treatment-seeking. Stigma, as in choice D, can act as a deterrent, but denial of the problem itself is usually the primary obstacle to seeking help.

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