teaching about the need to avoid foods high in potassium is most important for which client
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Nursing Elites

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Quizlet 2023

1. Teaching about the importance of avoiding foods high in potassium is most crucial for which client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with renal disease are prone to hyperkalemia due to impaired kidney function, making it crucial for them to avoid foods high in potassium to prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because clients receiving diuretic therapy, with an ileostomy, or with metabolic alkalosis are at risk of hypokalemia. These individuals should actually consume foods high in potassium to replenish the electrolyte lost through diuresis, ileostomy output, or metabolic alkalosis.

2. Which of the following is the drug of choice to decrease uric acid levels?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Allopurinol is the correct drug to decrease uric acid levels as it is used to treat gout by reducing uric acid formation. Prednisone is a corticosteroid that decreases inflammation, not uric acid levels. Indomethacin is an analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic agent, not specifically used to reduce uric acid levels. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic primarily used for treating hypertension and edema, not for reducing uric acid levels.

3. Which of the following blood pressure parameters indicates PIH? Elevation over a baseline of:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 30 mmHg systolic and/or 15 mmHg diastolic. These parameters indicate mild PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension). Mild preeclampsia is characterized by an increase in systolic blood pressure greater than 30 mmHg or an increase in diastolic blood pressure greater than 15 mmHg, observed on two readings taken 6 hours apart (or reaching 140/90). Choice B (40 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) represents a more significant elevation and would indicate a more severe condition than mild PIH. Choices C (10 mmHg systolic and/or 5 mmHg diastolic) and D (20 mmHg systolic and/or 20 mmHg diastolic) do not meet the criteria for indicating PIH as they are below the accepted parameters for mild PIH.

4. For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat. To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient in the rehab unit during shift change. The patient has sustained a TBI 3 weeks ago. Which of the following is the most distinguishing characteristic of a neurological disturbance?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Level of consciousness (LOC) is the most crucial indicator of impaired neurological function. Changes in LOC can signify various neurological conditions, including traumatic brain injury. Short-term memory, while important, is not the most distinguishing characteristic of neurological disturbances. Babinski and Clonus signs are specific neurological tests that can provide information about upper motor neuron lesions but are not as generalizable as changes in LOC for assessing overall neurological status.

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