Nursing Elites

1. When caring for clients with Buck’s Traction, the major areas of importance should be:

• A. nutrition, elimination, comfort, safety
• B. ROM exercises, transportation
• C. nutrition, elimination, comfort, safety
• D. elimination, safety, isotonic exercises

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for clients with Buck’s Traction, the major areas of importance should be nutrition, elimination, comfort, and safety. Proper nutrition, including a diet high in protein with adequate fluids, is essential for healing and recovery. Elimination refers to maintaining regular bowel and bladder function. Comfort is crucial to ensure the patient's well-being while in traction, and safety measures should be followed to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. ROM exercises are not typically a primary concern with Buck’s Traction, making choices A and B incorrect. Isotonic exercises are not specifically related to the care of a client in Buck's Traction, making choice D incorrect.

2. Nurse Ann tells nurse Christine that one of her client's status is declining but that she will do her best to juggle her other two clients. Which action is most appropriate?

• A. Nurse Christine should offer to give medications to Nurse Ann's other two clients.
• B. Nurse Christine should inform their supervisor that assignments may need to be changed.
• C. Nurse Christine should ask other nurses who might be able to help Nurse Ann.
• D. Nurse Ann should try not to burden other nurses and continue caring for her assigned clients.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this situation, when Nurse Ann informs Nurse Christine that a client's status is declining and she needs to attend to them, the most appropriate action for Nurse Christine is to inform their supervisor that assignments may need to be changed. By informing the supervisor, necessary adjustments can be made to ensure proper care for all clients. Offering to give medications to Nurse Ann's other two clients (choice A) may not address the underlying issue of a declining client and could lead to a delay in care. Asking other nurses for help (choice C) might not be the most efficient solution, as the supervisor is responsible for reassigning tasks. Nurse Ann continuing to care for all her assigned clients (choice D) may compromise the quality of care provided to the declining client and may spread her too thin, impacting all clients negatively.

3. A licensed practical nurse (LPN) works on an adult medical/surgical unit and has been pulled to work on the burn unit, which cares for clients of all ages. What should the LPN do?

• A. The LPN should take the assignment, but make it clear they will only care for adult clients.
• B. The LPN should take the assignment, but explain the situation to the charge nurse and ask for a quick orientation before starting.
• C. The LPN should refuse to take the assignment, as caring for the infant and child population is not within their scope of practice.
• D. The LPN should take the assignment, but ask to be paired with a more experienced LPN.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the LPN to demonstrate flexibility and a willingness to adapt to the new assignment that involves caring for clients of all ages. While the LPN may have expertise in a specific nursing area, it is essential to be able to provide care to diverse client populations. Accepting the assignment reflects a commitment to teamwork and patient care. However, to ensure safe and competent care, the LPN should communicate with the charge nurse about the situation. Requesting a quick orientation will help the LPN familiarize themselves with the burn unit's specific requirements, equipment, and protocols. This proactive approach allows the LPN to address any concerns, ask questions, and seek necessary support, ultimately ensuring the best care for all clients in the burn unit. Choice A is incorrect because limiting care to only adult clients may not be feasible in a unit that cares for clients of all ages. Choice C is incorrect as refusing the assignment outright may not be the best approach without considering alternatives. Choice D is not the most effective option as asking to be paired with a more experienced LPN does not address the need for a quick orientation to the new unit.

4. Which of the following medications should be held 24-48 hours prior to an electroencephalogram (EEG)?

• A. Lasix (furosemide)
• B. Cardizem (diltiazem)
• C. Lanoxin (digoxin)
• D. Dilantin (phenytoin)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticonvulsants like Dilantin should be held 24-48 hours before an EEG to prevent interference with the test results. Medications such as tranquilizers, barbiturates, and other sedatives should also be avoided. Lasix, Cardizem, and Lanoxin do not belong to these categories and are not known to interfere with EEG results.

5. In an emergency situation, the nurse determines whether a client has an airway obstruction. Which of the following does the nurse assess?

• A. ability to speak
• B. ability to hear
• C. oxygen saturation
• D. adventitious breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In an emergency situation, assessing the client's ability to speak is crucial in determining airway obstruction. If a client can speak, it indicates that the airway is patent and not completely obstructed. Choices B and C, assessing the ability to hear and oxygen saturation, are not directly indicative of an airway obstruction. Choice D, adventitious breath sounds, may be present in conditions like asthma or pneumonia but are not specific to determining an airway obstruction.

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