Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. Protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.

2. A client scheduled for a left mastectomy and axillary lymph node dissection is wearing a wedding band on her left ring finger. The nurse should take which action?

• A. Tape the wedding band in place
• B. Ask the client to sign a release freeing the hospital of responsibility if the wedding band is lost during surgery
• C. Explain to the client why the wedding band must be removed
• D. Ask the client whether she would like to remove the wedding band or wear it to surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In most situations, a wedding band may be taped in place and worn during a surgical procedure. However, if there is a possibility that the client will experience swelling of the hand or fingers, the wedding band should be removed. On admission to a healthcare facility, the client is usually asked to sign a form that releases the agency from responsibility if a client's valuables are lost. After a mastectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, the client is at risk for lymphedema, which can result in swelling of the arm and hand on the affected side. Therefore, the appropriate nursing action is to ask the client to remove the wedding band and explain why. This ensures the client's safety and prevents potential complications. Option A is incorrect because taping the wedding band may not be sufficient if swelling occurs. Option B is incorrect as it does not address the immediate need to remove the wedding band. Option D is incorrect because it fails to provide the client with the necessary information about the potential risks of wearing the wedding band during surgery.

3. A director of nursing at a long-term care center has announced a change to computerized documentation of nursing care. A certified nursing assistant (CNA) on the team, resistant to the change, is not taking an active part in facilitating the implementation of the new procedure. Which strategy would be the best approach to dealing with the conflict?

• A. Meeting with the CNA and encouraging him to express his feelings regarding the change
• B. Ignoring the resistance
• C. Telling the CNA that a licensed practical nurse (LPN) will perform all computer documentation while he documents intake and output and vital signs
• D. Telling the CNA that noncompliance will be documented in the personnel record

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best approach to dealing with resistance to change is through open communication and understanding. Meeting with the CNA and encouraging him to express his feelings regarding the change allows for a constructive dialogue where issues can be addressed, and alternative solutions can be explored. Ignoring the resistance does not help in resolving the conflict and may lead to further issues. Telling the CNA that a licensed practical nurse (LPN) will perform all computer documentation while he documents intake and output and vital signs does not address the underlying concerns of the CNA and may create more resistance. Threatening the CNA with noncompliance consequences may escalate the resistance and create a negative work environment.

4. The nurse is transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed. Which is the correct procedure?

• A. Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the unaffected limb.
• B. Pull the client toward you, and pivot him on the affected limb.
• C. Push the client toward the bed, and pivot him on the affected limb.
• D. Stand the client on both legs, and push him toward the bed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When transferring a client from a wheelchair to the bed, the correct procedure is to pull the client toward you, which reduces workload force. By pivoting the client on the unaffected limb, strength is maintained to support the affected limb while moving towards the bed. Choice A is correct because it ensures a safe and effective transfer technique. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they involve incorrect positioning and movements that could potentially harm the client or increase the risk of injury. Pulling the client towards you puts less strain on your back and reduces the risk of injury. Pivoting on the unaffected limb ensures better support for the client's affected limb during the transfer process.

5. Which of the following symptoms is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia in the client with a spinal cord injury?

• A. sudden onset of headache
• B. flushed face
• C. hypotension
• D. nasal congestion

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms due to an overactive autonomic nervous system. Hypotension is not indicative of autonomic dysreflexia; instead, hypertension is a hallmark sign. Therefore, hypotension is the correct answer. Flushed face, sudden onset of headache, and nasal congestion are classic symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia caused by a noxious stimulus below the level of the spinal cord injury. These symptoms result from the body's attempt to regulate blood pressure when the normal feedback loop is interrupted.

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