Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?

• A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• B. Protease inhibitors
• C. HIV fusion inhibitors
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.

2. When assessing a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), the nurse should expect which of the following findings?

• A. mental confusion
• B. muscular weakness
• C. sensory loss
• D. emotional liability

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with ALS typically present with progressive muscular weakness and wasting as a hallmark feature of the disease. This weakness affects voluntary muscles, leading to challenges in mobility and daily activities. Sensory loss is not a characteristic feature of ALS, and individuals usually maintain their mental clarity without experiencing mental confusion. Emotional liability, characterized by sudden, uncontrolled changes in emotions, is not a common finding in ALS. While individuals may experience periods of grief due to the progressive nature of the disease, emotional liability is not a usual manifestation. Therefore, the correct finding to expect when assessing a client with ALS is muscular weakness.

3. A new mother asks the nurse, 'I was told that my infant received my antibodies during pregnancy. Does that mean that my infant is protected against infections?' Which statement should the nurse make in response to the mother?

• A. The immune system of an infant is immature, and the infant is at risk for infection.
• B. The transfer of your antibodies protects your infant until the infant is 12 months old.
• C. Yes, your infant is protected from all infections.
• D. If you breastfeed, your infant is protected from infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies supplements the infant's weak response to infection until approximately 3 to 4 months of age. While the infant starts producing immunoglobulin (Ig) soon after birth, it only reaches about 60% of the adult IgG level, 75% of the adult IgM level, and 20% of the adult IgA level by 1 year of age. Breast milk provides additional IgA protection. Although the immune system matures during infancy, full protection against infections is not achieved until early childhood, putting the infant at risk for infections. Choice B is incorrect because maternal antibody protection typically lasts around 3 to 4 months, not until the infant is 12 months old. Choice C is incorrect as infants are not shielded from all infections due to their immature immune system. Choice D is incorrect because while breastfeeding offers extra protection, it does not guarantee complete immunity against infections.

4. Quality is defined as a combination of all of the following except:

• A. conforming to standards.
• B. performing at the minimally acceptable level.
• C. meeting or exceeding customer requirements.
• D. exceeding customer expectations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Quality in any context is about meeting or exceeding customer requirements and exceeding customer expectations. It also involves conforming to standards to ensure consistency and reliability. Merely performing at the minimally acceptable level does not encompass the essence of quality, as it sets the bar at the lowest level of acceptability rather than aiming for excellence or customer satisfaction. Therefore, the correct answer is 'performing at the minimally acceptable level,' as this choice falls short in capturing the comprehensive definition of quality.

5. What is the appropriate ratio of cardiac compressions to ventilations in an adult client for one-person CPR?

• A. 5:01
• B. 1:05
• C. 15:02
• D. 2:15

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 15:2. For one-person CPR on an adult, the ratio of compressions to ventilations is 15:2. This ratio ensures adequate oxygenation while maintaining effective circulation. Choice A (5:1) and Choice B (1:5) are incorrect ratios and do not align with the recommended guidelines for adult CPR. Choice D (2:15) is also incorrect as it reverses the order of compressions and ventilations.

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