Nursing Elites

1. A health care provider repeatedly asks a nurse to write his verbal prescriptions in his clients' charts after he makes his rounds. The nurse is uncomfortable with writing the prescriptions and explains this to the health care provider, but the health care provider tells the nurse that she will be reported if she does not write the prescriptions. How should the nurse manage this conflict?

• A. Stating to the health care provider, 'I don't really care whether you report me. I am not writing your prescriptions.'
• B. Fulfilling the health care provider's request
• C. Discussing the situation with the nurse manager
• D. Reporting the health care provider to the chief of medicine at the hospital

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a conflict arises, it is most appropriate to try resolving the conflict directly. In this situation, the nurse has tried to explain why she is uncomfortable with the health care provider's request but has been unable to resolve the conflict. The nurse would then most appropriately use organizational channels of communication and discuss the issue with the nurse manager, who would then proceed to resolve the conflict. The nurse manager may attempt to discuss the situation with the health care provider or seek assistance from the nursing supervisor. Fulfilling the health care provider's request and writing the prescriptions in the clients' charts ignores the issue. Reporting the health care provider to the chief of medicine is inappropriate because the nurse should use the appropriate organizational channels of communication to resolve the conflict. Stating 'I don't really care whether you report me. I am not writing your prescriptions.' is an inappropriate statement and will result in further conflict between the nurse and health care provider.

2. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

• A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
• B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
• C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
• D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

3. Which of the following foods might a client with hypercholesterolemia need to decrease intake of?

• A. broiled catfish
• B. hamburgers
• C. wheat bread
• D. fresh apples

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with hypercholesterolemia needs to decrease intake of foods that are high in cholesterol. Red meats like hamburgers are high in cholesterol, so their consumption should be reduced. Broiled catfish, wheat bread, and fresh apples are not high in cholesterol and do not need to be decreased in the client's diet. Therefore, the correct answer is hamburgers, as they are more likely to contribute to elevated cholesterol levels compared to the other options provided.

4. Which of the following devices may be applicable to a bedridden patient to address potential venous insufficiency?

• A. Shear-reducing mattress
• B. Sequential compression devices
• C. Hiking stockings
• D. Non-skid socks

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a bedridden patient with potential venous insufficiency, sequential compression devices (SCDs) and compression stockings are appropriate choices. SCDs help improve venous return from the lower extremities by applying sequential pressure, aiding circulation. Compression stockings also assist in preventing blood from pooling in the legs by applying pressure to support venous return. Shear-reducing mattresses are not directly related to managing venous insufficiency, as they are designed to reduce friction and shear forces on the skin to prevent pressure ulcers. Non-skid socks are primarily used for fall prevention and have no direct impact on venous insufficiency.

5. Which of the following adverse effects should the client on Floxin be alerted to?

• A. stunting of height in teens and young adults
• B. propensity for anovulatory uterine bleeding
• C. intractable diarrhea
• D. tendon rupture

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is tendon rupture. Floxin is a quinolone antibiotic commonly used in respiratory infections and pelvic/reproductive infections. One of the rare adverse effects associated with quinolones is tendon sheath rupture, often affecting the Achilles tendon. Therefore, patients taking Floxin should be alerted to the possibility of tendon rupture. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not typically associated with Floxin use and are not common adverse effects of quinolone antibiotics. Stunting of height is not a recognized adverse effect of Floxin. Anovulatory uterine bleeding is not a known side effect of quinolones. Intractable diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Floxin.

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