which of the following clients require airborne precautions

NCLEX-PN

Nclex Questions Management of Care

1. Which of the following clients requires airborne precautions?

A. a client with fever, chills, vomiting, and diarrhea
B. a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox)
C. a client with abdominal pain and purpura
D. a client diagnosed with AIDS

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'a client suspected of varicella (chickenpox).' Chickenpox is an acute, infectious airborne illness that requires airborne precautions, including wearing a respirator mask for direct contact with the patient. Choices A, C, and D do not typically require airborne precautions. Choice A describes symptoms that may indicate a gastrointestinal infection but do not require airborne precautions. Choice C mentions abdominal pain and purpura, which are not specific to an airborne illness. Choice D, a client diagnosed with AIDS, does not necessitate airborne precautions unless there are additional infectious conditions present that require such measures.

2. Which of these statements is true regarding advance directives?

A. They must be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years in order to remain valid.
B. An advance directive is legally valid in every state, regardless of the state it was created in.
C. A physician must determine when a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.
D. They cannot be honored by EMTs (emergency medical technicians) unless signed by a doctor.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement is that advance directives cannot be honored by EMTs unless they are signed by a doctor. EMTs are required to provide emergency care to a client, irrespective of their advance directive status, unless the directive has been signed by a doctor. When a client is brought to the hospital, physicians will assess the client and implement the advance directive if necessary. Advance directives do not need to be reviewed and re-signed every 10 years to remain valid; they remain in effect until changed. While advance directives are legally valid in most states, some states may not honor those created in other states, so it's advisable to check the new state's policies if a client moves. Additionally, it typically requires two physicians, not just one, to determine if a client is unable to make medical decisions for themselves.

3. The nurse is teaching a client about erythema infectiosum. Which of the following factors is not correct?

A. There is no rash.
B. The disorder is uncommon in adults.
C. There is no fever.
D. There is sometimes a 'slapped face' appearance.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the disorder is uncommon in adults. Erythema infectiosum, also known as Fifth's disease, commonly affects children and is characterized by a 'slapped face' appearance. It is associated with a rash and sometimes a low-grade fever. Therefore, the statement 'The disorder is uncommon in adults' is not correct, making it the correct answer. The other statements about the presence of a rash, 'slapped face' appearance, and the possibility of a fever are accurate in the context of erythema infectiosum.

4. A client with a left arm fracture complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. On further assessment, the nurse notes that the client experiences increased pain during passive motion compared with active motion of the left arm. Based on these assessment findings, which action should the nurse take first?

A. Contacting the health care provider
B. Checking if it is time for more pain medication
C. Encouraging the client to continue active range of motion exercises of the left arm
D. Repositioning the client for comfort

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to contact the health care provider. The client with early acute compartment syndrome typically complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. Additionally, the affected client experiences greater pain during passive motion compared to active motion. In this situation, it is crucial to notify the health care provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Contacting the health care provider is essential to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition. Checking for more pain medication, encouraging active range of motion exercises, or repositioning the client may not address the underlying issue of acute compartment syndrome and could delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the priority action should be to involve the healthcare provider for prompt assessment and treatment.

5. Which of the following is not a function of parathyroid hormone?

A. moving calcium from bones to the bloodstream
B. inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus
C. promoting renal tubular reabsorption of calcium
D. enhancing renal production of vitamin D metabolites

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'inhibiting renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus.' Parathyroid hormone actually inhibits renal tubular reabsorption of phosphorus, making this choice the opposite of its function. Parathyroid hormone functions to move calcium from bones to the bloodstream (Choice A), promote renal tubular reabsorption of calcium (Choice C), and enhance renal production of vitamin D metabolites (Choice D). Therefore, all other choices are functions of parathyroid hormone except for the inhibition of phosphorus reabsorption.