NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. A director of nursing at a long-term care center has announced a change to computerized documentation of nursing care. A certified nursing assistant (CNA) on the team, resistant to the change, is not taking an active part in facilitating the implementation of the new procedure. Which strategy would be the best approach to dealing with the conflict?
- A. Meeting with the CNA and encouraging him to express his feelings regarding the change
- B. Ignoring the resistance
- C. Telling the CNA that a licensed practical nurse (LPN) will perform all computer documentation while he documents intake and output and vital signs
- D. Telling the CNA that noncompliance will be documented in the personnel record
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best approach to dealing with resistance to change is through open communication and understanding. Meeting with the CNA and encouraging him to express his feelings regarding the change allows for a constructive dialogue where issues can be addressed, and alternative solutions can be explored. Ignoring the resistance does not help in resolving the conflict and may lead to further issues. Telling the CNA that a licensed practical nurse (LPN) will perform all computer documentation while he documents intake and output and vital signs does not address the underlying concerns of the CNA and may create more resistance. Threatening the CNA with noncompliance consequences may escalate the resistance and create a negative work environment.
2. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:
- A. Placenta previa.
- B. Eclampsia.
- C. Abruptio placentae.
- D. Uterine rupture.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.
3. Pulling is easier than pushing. So pulling a client rather than pushing them has which of the following advantages?
- A. reduces workload
- B. decreases opposition from gravity
- C. maintains stability
- D. prevents muscle strain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When pulling a client, you work with the gravitational force instead of opposing it, which reduces the workload on your muscles. Choosing to pull a client minimizes the effort required compared to pushing. Choice B is incorrect because the force of gravity remains constant regardless of pushing or pulling. Choice C is irrelevant as stability is not directly related to the advantage of pulling over pushing. Choice D is inaccurate because pulling can still strain muscles if not executed correctly, but it generally reduces the overall workload in comparison to pushing.
4. During an annual physical exam, a client is diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH). This client is likely to have a consult with which type of physician?
- A. gynecologist
- B. physiatrist
- C. urologist
- D. proctologist
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A client diagnosed with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) would typically have a consult with a urologist. Urologists specialize in urinary tract and prostatic diseases, making them the appropriate choice for managing BPH. A gynecologist focuses on diseases of the female reproductive tract, so they are not relevant in this case. A physiatrist specializes in rehabilitation care, which is not directly related to the treatment of BPH. A proctologist specializes in lower colonic digestive diseases, which are unrelated to BPH.
5. Which of the following statements is true about syphilis?
- A. The cause and mode of transmission are well understood.
- B. There is no known cure for the disease.
- C. When the primary lesion heals, the disease is cured.
- D. Syphilis can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement about syphilis is that it can be cured with a course of antibiotic therapy. Syphilis is a treponemal disease that can be effectively treated with antibiotics, particularly long-acting penicillin G. The primary lesion of syphilis, known as a chancre, typically appears about three weeks after exposure and can involute even without specific treatment. If left untreated, secondary manifestations may occur, followed by latent periods. Specific treatment with antibiotics is crucial to prevent progression and transmission of the disease. Therefore, option D is correct. Option A is incorrect because the cause and mode of transmission of syphilis are well understood. Option B is incorrect as there is a known cure for syphilis. Option C is incorrect because the healing of the primary lesion does not indicate a cure for the disease.
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