Nursing Elites

1. The nurse manager of a quality improvement program asks a nurse in the neurological unit to conduct a retrospective audit. Which action should the auditing nurse plan to perform in this type of audit?

• A. Checking the crash cart to ensure that all needed supplies are readily available in case of an emergency
• B. Checking the documentation written by a new nursing graduate on her assigned clients at the end of the shift
• C. Reviewing neurological assessment checklists for all clients on the unit to ensure that these assessments are being conducted as prescribed
• D. Obtaining the assigned medical record from the hospital's medical record room to review documentation made during a client's hospital stay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Quality improvement, also known as performance improvement, focuses on processes contributing to client safety and care outcomes. Retrospective audits involve reviewing medical records after discharge for compliance with standards. Concurrent audits assess staff compliance during a client's stay. Therefore, obtaining the medical record from the hospital's record room for review is crucial in a retrospective audit. Options A, B, and C are more suited for concurrent audits as they involve real-time assessment during a client's stay.

2. Following an automobile accident that caused a head injury to an adult client, the nurse observes that the client sleeps for long periods of time. The nurse determines that the client has experienced injury to the:

• A. hypothalamus.
• B. thalamus.
• C. cortex.
• D. medulla.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating sleep patterns among other functions. Injury to the hypothalamus can disrupt the sleep-wake cycle, leading to excessive sleepiness or changes in sleep patterns. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not primarily control sleep regulation. The thalamus is involved in relaying sensory information, the cortex is responsible for higher brain functions, and the medulla controls vital functions such as heartbeat and breathing.

3. When should the biohazard emblem be affixed to containers according to the orientation nurse educator reviewing the biohazard legend with a class of new employees?

• A. when there is presence of blood and body fluids.
• B. when there is the need for droplet precautions.
• C. when there is contact isolation.
• D. when there is the potential for airborne transmission.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'when there is presence of blood and body fluids.' When handling body substances like blood and body fluids, the risk of transmission of infections increases. Federal regulations mandate warning labels on containers to alert employees and waste collectors. The biohazard emblem consists of a three-ring symbol overlaying a central concentric ring. Blood, wound drainage, feces, and urine are examples of body fluids that can transmit infections and diseases to others. The other choices, B, C, and D, are incorrect because the presence of the biohazard emblem is specifically linked to the handling of blood and body fluids, not to droplet precautions, contact isolation, or airborne transmission.

4. Under what circumstances is the legal right to confidentiality of client information waived?

• A. When a court system subpoenas information.
• B. When a family member requests health care information of a client.
• C. When a living will takes effect.
• D. When the client is declared incompetent by the legal system.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The legal right to confidentiality of client information is waived when a court system subpoenas information. This occurs when information is required for legal proceedings to occur, such as through summonses, court orders, or litigation information necessary for the court. Subpoenas are legal orders that compel the disclosure of information. The other choices do not inherently waive the legal right to confidentiality. A family member's request for health care information would typically require the client's consent or fall under specific legal exceptions. A living will dictates end-of-life care preferences but does not necessarily waive confidentiality. Lastly, the declaration of incompetence may impact decision-making capacity but does not automatically waive confidentiality.

5. The nurse should teach parents of small children that the most common type of first-degree burn is:

• A. scalding from hot bath water or spills.
• B. contact with hot surfaces such as stoves and fireplaces.
• C. contact with flammable liquids or gases resulting in flash burns.
• D. sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'sunburn from lack of protection and overexposure.' First-degree burns primarily affect the outer layer of the skin and are commonly caused by overexposure to the sun without adequate protection, making it a significant concern for parents of small children. Choices A, B, and C describe other types of burns (scalding, contact with hot surfaces, and contact with flammable substances) that can cause more severe burns beyond the first-degree level. It is crucial for parents to be educated about sun safety measures to prevent sunburns in children.

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