Nursing Elites

1. Which symptom is the client who self-administered an overdose of acetaminophen most likely to exhibit?

• A. Pink frothy sputum
• B. Seizure activity
• C. Jaundiced conjunctiva
• D. Diaphoresis and fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client self-administers an overdose of acetaminophen, the liver is primarily affected. Jaundiced conjunctiva, which is yellowing of the eyes, is a common symptom of liver damage. Pink frothy sputum is typically associated with conditions like pulmonary edema, not acetaminophen overdose. Seizure activity is not a common symptom of acetaminophen overdose but can be seen in other toxicities. Diaphoresis and fever are more generalized symptoms and not specific to acetaminophen overdose.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's right lower extremity. The extremity is warm to touch, red, and swollen. The patient is also running a low fever. Which of the following conditions would be the most likely cause of the patient's condition?

• A. Herpes
• B. Scleroderma
• C. Dermatitis
• D. Cellulitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient's presentation of a warm, red, swollen extremity with a low fever is indicative of cellulitis, which is inflammation of cellular tissue. Cellulitis is commonly associated with these symptoms due to a bacterial infection in the skin and underlying tissues. Herpes (Choice A) is a viral infection that typically presents with grouped vesicles, not the warm, red, swollen presentation seen in cellulitis. Scleroderma (Choice B) is a chronic autoimmune condition affecting the skin and connective tissue, presenting differently from the acute symptoms of cellulitis. Dermatitis (Choice C) refers to skin inflammation, which does not typically present with the described symptoms of warmth, redness, swelling, and low fever observed in cellulitis.

3. A client who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and beginning medication therapy asks the nurse, 'How soon will I see improvement?' The nurse's best response is:

• A. "That varies from client to client."?
• B. "You should discuss that with your physician."?
• C. "You should notice a difference in a few days."?
• D. "It might take several weeks before you notice improvement."?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the case of Parkinson's disease, improvement in symptoms may take several weeks of therapy to become noticeable. Therefore, the correct answer is to inform the client that it might take several weeks before they notice improvement. Choice A acknowledges individual variability but does not provide a specific timeframe, making it less reassuring. Choice B suggests deferring the question to the physician, which is not the most supportive response. Choice C is incorrect because improvement in Parkinson's disease symptoms typically does not occur within a few days.

4. A client is 36 hours post-op a TKR surgery. 270 cc of sero-sanguinous fluid accumulates in the surgical drains. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify the doctor
• B. Empty the drain
• C. Do nothing
• D. Remove the drain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to notify the doctor. Significant sero-sanguinous drainage after TKR surgery could indicate a potential issue such as infection or bleeding. The physician needs to be informed promptly to assess the situation and determine the appropriate course of action. Emptying the drain, doing nothing, or removing the drain without consulting the physician could lead to complications going unnoticed or untreated. It is crucial to involve the physician in decision-making to ensure the best outcomes for the client.

5. A client with sickle cell disease is worried about passing the disease on to children. Which of the following statements by the PN is most appropriate for this client?

• A. "You should discuss the inheritance risk with your physician."?
• B. "Sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children."?
• C. "Sickle cell disease is genetically based and is not passed on to children."?
• D. "Sickle cell disease is caused by an infection and cannot be passed on to children."?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with sickle cell disease has a genetic condition that can be passed on to their offspring. The most appropriate statement for the PN to provide is to acknowledge this fact and inform the client that sickle cell disease is genetically based and might be passed on to children. This empowers the client with accurate information. Choice A has been refined to emphasize discussing the inheritance risk, making it a better option than the vague original choice. Choices C and D provide incorrect information. Sickle cell disease is indeed genetically based and can be inherited.

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