Nursing Elites

1. Which symptom is the client who self-administered an overdose of acetaminophen most likely to exhibit?

• A. Pink frothy sputum
• B. Seizure activity
• C. Jaundiced conjunctiva
• D. Diaphoresis and fever

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client self-administers an overdose of acetaminophen, the liver is primarily affected. Jaundiced conjunctiva, which is yellowing of the eyes, is a common symptom of liver damage. Pink frothy sputum is typically associated with conditions like pulmonary edema, not acetaminophen overdose. Seizure activity is not a common symptom of acetaminophen overdose but can be seen in other toxicities. Diaphoresis and fever are more generalized symptoms and not specific to acetaminophen overdose.

2. Which task would be appropriate for the LPN to perform?

• A. Changing a colostomy bag.
• B. Hanging a new bag of TPN.
• C. Drawing a peak antibiotic blood level from a central line.
• D. Administering IV pain medication to a two-day post-op client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is changing a colostomy bag. This task falls within the LPN's scope of practice. LPNs are trained to provide basic nursing care, including assisting with activities of daily living and certain medical procedures like changing ostomy bags. Hanging a new bag of TPN and drawing a peak antibiotic blood level from a central line are tasks that require a higher level of training and are typically performed by RNs due to their complexity and potential risks. Administering IV pain medication to a two-day post-op client is usually the responsibility of an RN as it involves close monitoring, assessment of the client's condition, and the administration of potent medications that require a higher level of clinical judgment and expertise.

3. A nurse reviews the health history of a client who will be seeing the health care provider to obtain a prescription for a combination oral contraceptive (estrogen and progestin). Which finding in the health history would cause the nurse to determine that the use of a combination oral contraceptive is contraindicated?

• A. The client has type 2 diabetes mellitus.
• B. The client is being treated for hypertension.
• C. The client has been treated for breast cancer.
• D. The client has hyperlipidemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is that the client has been treated for breast cancer. Combination oral contraceptives containing estrogen and progestin are contraindicated for women with a history of certain conditions, such as thrombophlebitis, thromboembolic disorders, cerebrovascular disease, coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction, known or suspected breast cancer, known or suspected estrogen-dependent neoplasm, benign or malignant liver tumors, and undiagnosed abnormal genital bleeding. Although having type 2 diabetes mellitus, being treated for hypertension, or having hyperlipidemia are risk factors that require caution when using combination oral contraceptives, they are not absolute contraindications like a history of breast cancer.

4. While assessing a patient in the ICU, a nurse observes signs of a weak pulse, quick respiration, acetone breath, and nausea. Which of the following conditions is most likely occurring?

• A. Hypoglycemic patient
• B. Hyperglycemic patient
• C. Cardiac arrest
• D. End-stage renal failure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is a hyperglycemic patient. The signs described - weak pulse, quick respiration, acetone breath, and nausea - are indicative of hyperglycemia. A hypoglycemic patient would typically present with different signs such as pale skin, sweating, and confusion. Cardiac arrest would manifest with sudden loss of heart function and consciousness, not the signs described. End-stage renal failure would present with symptoms related to kidney dysfunction like edema, fatigue, and changes in urine output, which are not mentioned in the scenario.

5. One week ago, a client was involved in a motor vehicle crash (MVC) and was brought to the Emergency Department (ED). In the emergency department, the client received two stitches to the forehead and was sent home. Today, the client's spouse notes that the client 'acts like he is drunk' and cannot control his right foot and arm. The nurse will suspect?

• A. Meningitis
• B. Absence seizure
• C. Subdural hematoma
• D. Meniere's disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Yes! The nurse will suspect a subdural hematoma. In this case, the client's presentation of acting intoxicated and experiencing loss of motor control in the right foot and arm is indicative of an acute subdural hematoma. This condition can occur after a head injury with a slow venous bleed, where symptoms may not show until compensation mechanisms are overwhelmed. Meningitis (choice A) usually presents with fever, headache, and neck stiffness. Absence seizure (choice B) is characterized by brief periods of unconsciousness without convulsions. Meniere's disease (choice D) manifests with symptoms like vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus, which do not match the client's current symptoms.

Similar Questions