Nursing Elites

1. Which of these would be an appropriate meal for a client with Celiac disease?

• A. egg noodles with cream sauce and broccoli, oat cookie, almond milk
• B. turkey sandwich with rye bread, carrots
• C. chicken and rice, apple, and tapioca pudding
• D. granola and dried apricots with cow's milk

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For individuals with Celiac disease, it's crucial to avoid gluten-containing foods. Choice C, which includes chicken, rice, apple, and tapioca pudding, is the most suitable option as all these foods are naturally gluten-free. Rice, fruits, vegetables, meat, dairy, and tapioca are all safe gluten-free options. Oats can be gluten-free if specially labeled, but many are processed on shared equipment with wheat. Granola often contains oats that may have been exposed to gluten. Dried and prepackaged fruits may contain gluten additives. Rye is a wheat derivative, and cream sauces usually contain flour as a base, making choices A and B inappropriate for individuals with Celiac disease.

2. When a drug is listed as Category X and prescribed to women of child-bearing age/capacity, the nurse and the interdisciplinary team should counsel the client that:

• A. Pregnancy tests are not reliable while taking the drug.
• B. She must use a reliable form of birth control.
• C. She should not take the Category X drug on days she has intercourse.
• D. She must follow up with an endocrinologist.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a drug is categorized as Category X, it signifies that there are significant risks of fetal abnormalities if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, women of child-bearing age/capacity should use reliable forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while on the medication. This ensures that the client avoids the potential harm to the fetus. Option A is incorrect because pregnancy tests are not unreliable due to the drug, but rather the risk is related to potential harm to the fetus. Option C is incorrect as avoiding the drug only on days of intercourse does not provide sufficient protection against pregnancy. Option D is incorrect as the need for an endocrinologist is not directly related to the use of Category X drugs.

3. When removing a client's gown with an intravenous line, what should the nurse do?

• A. temporarily disconnect the intravenous tubing at a point close to the client and thread it through the gown
• B. cut the gown with scissors
• C. thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve, keeping the line intact
• D. temporarily disconnect the tubing from the intravenous container and thread it through the gown

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action when removing a client's gown with an intravenous line is to thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve while keeping the line intact. This method ensures that the system remains sterile and reduces the risk of infection. Temporarily disconnecting the tubing at a point close to the client or from the container introduces the potential for contamination. Cutting the gown with scissors should only be done in emergencies as it is not a standard practice and can compromise the integrity of the intravenous line. Therefore, the most appropriate and safe method is to thread the bag and tubing through the gown sleeve.

4. All of the following are causes of vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy except:

• A. Placenta previa.
• B. Eclampsia.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Uterine rupture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eclampsia. Eclampsia is a disorder of pregnancy characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. This condition can cause seizures and/or coma but does not typically present with vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are abnormal conditions that can cause bleeding, particularly in the third trimester. Placenta previa (choice A) is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to vaginal bleeding. Abruptio placentae (choice C) is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, causing vaginal bleeding. Uterine rupture (choice D) is a serious obstetrical emergency where the uterus tears during pregnancy or childbirth, resulting in severe bleeding.

5. What is mammography used to detect?

• A. pain
• B. tumor
• C. edema
• D. epilepsy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mammography is a diagnostic imaging technique specifically designed to detect tumors, cysts, or other abnormalities in breast tissue. It is not used to detect pain, edema, or epilepsy. Pain is a symptom, not a condition that mammography can detect. Edema refers to swelling and is not detectable through mammography. Epilepsy is a neurological disorder, not a condition detected by mammography.

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