NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Test Bank
1. Which of these clients should the LPN/LVN see first?
- A. a client with a newly placed NG tube who is complaining of pain around the face and a plugged nose
- B. a post-op prostatectomy client who complains of bladder spasms and blood in his foley bag
- C. a client in an arm cast who is 2 days post-op and reports feelings of numbness and tingling in her affected arm
- D. a client newly diagnosed with Hepatitis A who reports stomach pain and itchy skin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Numbness and tingling hours or days after a cast is applied may indicate compartment syndrome and should be reported to a medical provider right away. This is a potential emergency situation that requires immediate attention to prevent complications. The other options present expected or typical symptoms related to their diagnosis, which do not require immediate intervention. Complaints related to a newly placed NG tube such as pain around the face and a plugged nose may require assessment and intervention but are not as urgent as potential compartment syndrome. Bladder spasms and blood in the foley bag post-prostatectomy are common postoperative issues that can be addressed after the client in the arm cast with potential compartment syndrome is seen. Stomach pain and itchy skin in a client with Hepatitis A are common symptoms of the condition and do not indicate an emergency situation.
2. In which situation is the nurse upholding the ethical principle of fidelity?
- A. Providing complete information regarding treatment options to a client with newly diagnosed cancer
- B. Allowing a client to decide when to receive daily hygiene care
- C. Inserting a 19-gauge intravenous catheter into a client requiring a blood transfusion
- D. Contacting the health care provider about the client's request to incorporate complementary therapies for pain into the treatment plan
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fidelity is the ethical principle of keeping promises made to clients, families, and other healthcare professionals. Contacting the health care provider about the client's request to incorporate complementary therapies for pain into the treatment plan exemplifies fidelity. By advocating for the client's preferences and ensuring their requests are addressed, the nurse demonstrates a commitment to fulfilling promises made to the client. Allowing a client to decide when to receive daily hygiene care relates to respecting autonomy, not fidelity. Inserting a 19-gauge intravenous catheter into a client needing a blood transfusion aligns with beneficence, as it involves taking action to provide necessary treatment. Providing complete information to a client with newly diagnosed cancer about treatment options reflects justice, promoting fairness and equity in healthcare by offering equal access to information and treatment choices.
3. While receiving an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained of itchy skin. The nurse observed warm, flushed skin with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was promptly notified.
- A. The client is apparently allergic to cefazolin sodium, as indicated by warm, flushed skin and a rash on the arms, chest, and back.
- B. The client had an allergy to cefazolin sodium.
- C. The health care provider was notified because a rash developed while the client was receiving cefazolin sodium.
- D. During an infusion of cefazolin sodium, the client complained that his skin was itchy. The client's skin was warm and flushed, with a red rash on the arms, chest, and back. The health care provider was notified.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Accurate and objective documentation is essential during an incident report. Choice A makes an assumption of allergy based on subjective interpretation, which is not appropriate. Choice B states a conclusion without proper documentation. Choice C is incomplete as it fails to provide a detailed account of the observed symptoms. Choice D offers a precise description of the client's symptoms, actions taken, and notification of the healthcare provider, making it the most suitable documentation choice.
4. When a client has a chest drainage system in place, where should the system be placed?
- A. above the level of the client's chest
- B. at the level of the client's shoulders
- C. at the level of the chest
- D. below the level of the chest
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A chest drainage system should be placed below the level of the client's chest to ensure proper drainage of fluid from the chest. Placing the system above the level of the chest or at the shoulders would not allow gravity to assist in the drainage process, potentially leading to complications such as fluid accumulation. Similarly, placing it at the level of the chest would not create the necessary gravity-dependent flow for effective drainage, which is crucial for the proper functioning of the chest drainage system.
5. Which of the following are antiviral drug classes used in the treatment of HIV/AIDS?
- A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
- B. Protease inhibitors
- C. HIV fusion inhibitors
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'All of the above.' Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, protease inhibitors block the activity of the HIV-1 protease enzyme, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent HIV from entering human cells. Therefore, all the choices provided are valid antiviral drug classes for managing HIV/AIDS. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, and HIV fusion inhibitors play crucial roles in combating the virus at different stages. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors target an early stage, protease inhibitors act on a later stage, and HIV fusion inhibitors prevent viral entry. Thus, 'All of the above' is the correct and comprehensive answer encompassing different mechanisms of action in managing HIV/AIDS.
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