Nursing Elites

1. When planning task assignments for five clients on the skilled nursing unit in a long-term care facility, which task should a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assign to another LPN?

• A. Bathing a client who is confused and requires assistance with a shower
• B. Administering regular insulin in accordance with a sliding-dosage scale every 4 hours to a client with diabetes mellitus
• C. Assisting a client requiring a bed bath and frequent ambulation with a cane
• D. Transporting a client who must be accompanied to physical therapy twice during the shift

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assigning tasks, the nurse must consider the skills and educational level of the nursing staff. The nursing assistant may be assigned tasks like caring for a confused client, assisting with a shower or a bed bath, ambulating a client with a cane, and accompanying a client to physical therapy. The LPN is educated to administer medications like regular insulin in accordance with a sliding scale. This task requires a higher level of training and knowledge than the tasks that can be delegated to a nursing assistant. Administering insulin involves assessing blood glucose levels, calculating dosages, and understanding the effects of insulin therapy on the client's condition. Therefore, the correct answer is administering regular insulin to a client with diabetes mellitus. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that are within the scope of practice of a nursing assistant, not an LPN.

2. A client with a left arm fracture complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. On further assessment, the nurse notes that the client experiences increased pain during passive motion compared with active motion of the left arm. Based on these assessment findings, which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contacting the health care provider
• B. Checking if it is time for more pain medication
• C. Encouraging the client to continue active range of motion exercises of the left arm
• D. Repositioning the client for comfort

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to contact the health care provider. The client with early acute compartment syndrome typically complains of severe diffuse pain that is unrelieved by pain medication. Additionally, the affected client experiences greater pain during passive motion compared to active motion. In this situation, it is crucial to notify the health care provider immediately for further evaluation and intervention. Contacting the health care provider is essential to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition. Checking for more pain medication, encouraging active range of motion exercises, or repositioning the client may not address the underlying issue of acute compartment syndrome and could delay necessary interventions. Therefore, the priority action should be to involve the healthcare provider for prompt assessment and treatment.

3. The nurse has completed client teaching about introducing solid foods to an infant. To evaluate teaching, the nurse asks the mother to identify an appropriate first solid food. Which of the following is an appropriate response?

• A. pureed canned squash
• B. pureed apples
• C. yogurt
• D. infant rice cereal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is infant rice cereal. Single-grain infant cereals are recommended as the first solid food because they are easily digestible and have added iron content. Choice C, yogurt, is incorrect because yogurt is a milk product and should be delayed until the child is 12 months old due to the risk of milk allergy. Choices A and B are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are typically introduced after cereals to help the infant get accustomed to solid foods gradually.

4. Which of the following lab values is elevated first after a client has a myocardial infarction?

• A. LDH
• B. troponin
• C. CPK
• D. SGOT

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is troponin. Troponin levels are the most specific and sensitive markers for myocardial infarction, and they begin to rise within a few hours after the event. CPK, SGOT, and LDH are also enzymes that can indicate myocardial damage, but troponin is the earliest and most specific indicator. CPK typically rises 4-8 hours after an infarction, followed by SGOT (AST) at 8-12 hours, and LDH at 12-24 hours post-infarction.

5. Which sign might a healthcare professional observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high ammonia level can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, which includes symptoms like confusion, disorientation, and can progress to coma. Coma is a severe condition of unconsciousness. Edema is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and organs, not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria is excessive urination, which is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

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