Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching to a client about a do-not-resuscitate order (DNR)?

• A. When a heart ceases to beat, the client is pronounced clinically dead.
• B. Physicians are required to write DNR orders.
• C. A DNR order can be written after discussion with the client and family.
• D. A court decision is needed for a DNR.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in teaching a client about a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order is that it can be written after discussion with the client and family. This involves ensuring that the client and their family understand the implications and make an informed decision. Choice A is incorrect as pronouncing clinical death is not directly related to discussing a DNR order. Choice B is incorrect as while physicians typically write DNR orders, it is not a strict requirement. Choice D is incorrect as a court decision is not typically required for a DNR order; it is a decision made by the client with input from healthcare providers and family members.

2. Nurse Wayne is aware that a positive Chvostek's sign indicates:

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypermagnesemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia. This sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear, resulting in facial muscle twitching due to increased neuromuscular irritability from low calcium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is characterized by low sodium levels, but it does not present with Chvostek's sign. Hypokalemia (Choice C) is low potassium levels, and hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is high magnesium levels, neither of which are associated with Chvostek's sign.

3. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

4. Clinical manifestations associated with a diagnosis of type 1 DM include all of the following except:

• A. Hypoglycemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Ketonuria.
• D. Polyphagia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clinical manifestations of type 1 diabetes mellitus include hypoglycemia, ketonuria, and polyphagia. Hyponatremia is not typically associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus; it is more commonly linked with other conditions such as syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) or heart failure. Therefore, the correct answer is B: Hyponatremia.

5. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?

• A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day
• B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour
• C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg
• D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct outcome indicating effective treatment of diabetes insipidus in a male client is a fluid intake of less than 2,500 ml/day. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination causes increased fluid intake to compensate for the fluid loss. By effectively managing the condition, the client's fluid intake should decrease. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for diabetes insipidus. Increased urine output (choice B) may indicate inadequate control of the condition, while low blood pressure (choice C) and a high heart rate (choice D) are not specific indicators of effective treatment for diabetes insipidus.

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