Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a priority nursing diagnosis for a client with Addison's disease?

• A. Fluid volume deficit
• B. Risk for infection
• C. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
• D. Disturbed body image

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client with Addison's disease is 'Fluid volume deficit.' Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, resulting in decreased aldosterone production. Aldosterone plays a key role in sodium and water retention in the body. With its deficiency, there is an increased risk of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, leading to fluid volume deficit. While infection risk, nutrition issues, and body image disturbances are also important considerations for holistic care, addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence due to the immediate physiological impact on the client's health and well-being.

2. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

3. The patient expects that a type 1 diabetic may receive ____ of their morning dose of insulin preoperatively:

• A. 10-20%.
• B. 25-40%.
• C. 50-60%.
• D. 85-90%.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is common practice to administer 25-40% of the morning dose of insulin preoperatively to prevent hypoglycemia during surgery. Giving a lower percentage (A) may not provide sufficient glycemic control, while higher percentages (C, D) can increase the risk of hypoglycemia during the surgical procedure.

4. The client with type 2 DM is being instructed by the nurse about the importance of controlling blood glucose levels. The nurse should emphasize that uncontrolled blood glucose can lead to:

• A. Increased risk of heart disease and stroke.
• B. Improved wound healing.
• C. Reduced need for medication.
• D. Decreased risk of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uncontrolled blood glucose levels are associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular complications, such as heart disease and stroke. High blood glucose levels can damage blood vessels over time, leading to atherosclerosis, which can increase the likelihood of heart disease and stroke. Improved wound healing (choice B) is not a consequence of uncontrolled blood glucose levels; in fact, high blood sugar levels can impair wound healing. Reduced need for medication (choice C) is inaccurate because uncontrolled blood glucose usually necessitates more medication to manage the condition. Decreased risk of infection (choice D) is also misleading as high blood glucose levels can compromise the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections.

5. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the electrocardiogram?

• A. Widened T wave
• B. Prominent U wave
• C. Prolonged QT interval
• D. Shortened ST segment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hypocalcemia, a decreased level of calcium can lead to a prolonged QT interval on the ECG due to its role in myocardial repolarization. A widened T wave (Choice A) is typically seen in hyperkalemia. A prominent U wave (Choice B) is associated with hypokalemia. A shortened ST segment (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypocalcemia.

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